God alone is the Savior

[Binyawmene]

In the New Testament, the word "Savior" is mention 24 times. And examining the Bible verses was quite an interesting Bible study. First, let's start off by acknowledging the fact that there is no other God-Saviors (Isaiah 43:11, 45:21, Hosea 13:4). Even Mary, the mother of Jesus, glorifies the Lord and rejoices in God as her Savior too (Luke 1:46-48). From King David's descendants, Jesus is refer to as the Savior from birth (Acts 13:23, Luke 2:11, Romans 9:5) and also in his exaltation (Acts 5:31, Ephesians 5:23, Philippians 3:20). It's not contradictory to "no other God-Savior" since both Paul and Peter identifies Jesus as "our God/Lord and Savior" (Titus 2:13, 2 Peter 1:1, 11, 2:20, 3:2, 18). And also, to "our savior" (2 Timothy 1:10, Titus 1:4, 3:6) without the emphasis of God/Lord.

However, there is only one verse that calls the Savior a man (John 4:42). Could it be that "they" (the Samaritans) were only viewing Jesus from an outward appearance of a man? After all, the Samaritans don't have the extensional context that Jesus is God incarnate (John 1:10-11). For example: Let's say that the citizens of Gotham only know that Batman that saved their city. But they don't know that Bruce Wayne is Batman. They don't have that extensional context. I, and you, we both know that Bruce Wayne is, in fact, Batman. It’s true that if Batman saved Gotham, then we can say that Bruce Wayne saved Gotham. But it would be fallacious to say that the citizens of Gotham knows that Bruce Wayne is Batman. I suppose the Samaritans could have read the Old Testament that "Savior" is always applied to God and Lord, and never applied to a man.

I've pretty much established the basis that the person of the Son in the Trinity is the God-Savior. But here is the main question and purpose of this thread. Is the "Savior" applied to the Son alone in the Trinity (as if the Father doesn't share the same Divine title "Savior") or does the New Testament apply it to the Father too? I personally say that the Divine title "Savior" is also in reference to the Father. Paul is very distinctive by the phrase "God our Savior" is in reference to the Father (1 Timothy 1:1, 2:3, Titus 1:3, 2:10, 3:4, Jude 1:25). After all, "only God our Savior" (Jude 25) is in reference to the Father, and "our God and Savior Jesus Christ" (2 Peter 1:1) is in reference to the Son. The Son is being on the same value level equally with the Father. Because the Son possesses those godness qualities that the Father alone possesses as being "God" and "Savior." As Trinitarians, we believe in one God, and all three persons is that "God-Savior" and there is no other savior or apart from God. All three persons is working salvation in us. Therefore, God is the Savior (1 Timothy 4:10, 1 John 4:14) as Scriptures testify.

 

[Josheb]

God is never alone .

 

[Josheb]

In the New Testament, the word "Savior" is mention 24 times. And examining the Bible verses was quite an interesting Bible study. First, let's start off by acknowledging the fact that there is no other God-Saviors (Isaiah 43:11, 45:21, Hosea 13:4). Even Mary, the mother of Jesus, glorifies the Lord and rejoices in God as her Savior too (Luke 1:46-48). From King David's descendants, Jesus is refer to as the Savior from birth (Acts 13:23, Luke 2:11, Romans 9:5) and also in his exaltation (Acts 5:31, Ephesians 5:23, Philippians 3:20). It's not contradictory to "no other God-Savior" since both Paul and Peter identifies Jesus as "our God/Lord and Savior" (Titus 2:13, 2 Peter 1:1, 11, 2:20, 3:2, 18). And also, to "our savior" (2 Timothy 1:10, Titus 1:4, 3:6) without the emphasis of God/Lord.

However, there is only one verse that calls the Savior a man (John 4:42). Could it be that "they" (the Samaritans) were only viewing Jesus from an outward appearance of a man? After all, the Samaritans don't have the extensional context that Jesus is God incarnate (John 1:10-11). For example: Let's say that the citizens of Gotham only know that Batman that saved their city. But they don't know that Bruce Wayne is Batman. They don't have that extensional context. I, and you, we both know that Bruce Wayne is, in fact, Batman. It’s true that if Batman saved Gotham, then we can say that Bruce Wayne saved Gotham. But it would be fallacious to say that the citizens of Gotham knows that Bruce Wayne is Batman. I suppose the Samaritans could have read the Old Testament that "Savior" is always applied to God and Lord, and never applied to a man.

I've pretty much established the basis that the person of the Son in the Trinity is the God-Savior. But here is the main question and purpose of this thread. Is the "Savior" applied to the Son alone in the Trinity (as if the Father doesn't share the same Divine title "Savior") or does the New Testament apply it to the Father too? I personally say that the Divine title "Savior" is also in reference to the Father. Paul is very distinctive by the phrase "God our Savior" is in reference to the Father (1 Timothy 1:1, 2:3, Titus 1:3, 2:10, 3:4, Jude 1:25). After all, "only God our Savior" (Jude 25) is in reference to the Father, and "our God and Savior Jesus Christ" (2 Peter 1:1) is in reference to the Son. The Son is being on the same value level equally with the Father. Because the Son possesses those godness qualities that the Father alone possesses as being "God" and "Savior." As Trinitarians, we believe in one God, and all three persons is that "God-Savior" and there is no other savior or apart from God. All three persons is working salvation in us. Therefore, God is the Savior (1 Timothy 4:10, 1 John 4:14) as Scriptures testify.

Absolutely!

You're hitting on something Trins have broached many times in many ways, namely the fact divine attributes are applied to both God and Jesus throughout the Bible AND applied in a manner that would otherwise be heretical and apostate if it were not true exactly as written. God saves. So does Jesus. If God alone saves and Jesus is not God, then Jesus cannot also save. If God and Jesus save, the Father and the Son save, then Jesus is God (along with the Father) and there aren't multiple gods.

 

[Fred]

"Savior"

Philippians 3:18-20
(18) For many walk, of whom I have told you often, and now tell you even weeping, that they are the enemies of the cross of Christ:
(19) Whose end is destruction, whose god is their belly, and whose glory is in their shame, who mind earthly things.
(20) For our citizenship is in heaven; from whence also we look for the Savior, the Lord Jesus Christ.

Romans 16:18
For such men are slaves, not of our Lord Christ, but their own belly; and by their smooth and flattering speeches they deceive the hearts of the unsuspecting.

Note the glaring contrast. For certain individuals their highest allegiance to whom they walked was their appetite (Philippians 3:18-19). Thus, it was what they "worshiped." That the Christian is a slave of the Lord Jesus demonstrates that it is to Him whom they worship (cf. Romans 1:1; 16:18).
1. Robert H. Mounce: Their god, the supreme object of their concern, was the belly. (Wycliffe Bible Commentary, page 1329)
2. John Lange: The belly is termed their God, as being their highest concern, the master whom they serve (Romans 16:18). (see comments on Philippians 3:19)
http://www.studylight.org/commentaries/lcc/philippians-3.html#1


This idolatry of those whose glory is in their shame (Philippians 3:19) echoes Old Testament passages in relation to misplaced worship rendered unto idols, instead of worship that is due unto God alone.

Hosea 4:7
As they were increased, so they sinned against Me: therefore will I change their glory into shame. (cf. 4:11-19 for the worship rendered unto idols)

Psalm 106:19-21
(19) They made a calf in Horeb, and worshiped the molten image.
(20) Thus they changed their glory into the similitude of an ox that eateth grass.
(21) They forgat God their Savior, which had done great things in Egypt.


The fact that Paul in Philippians 3 speaks of Jesus being our Savior in contrast to the misplaced worship rendered unto an idol demonstrates that Jesus is to be worshiped in that He is YHWH.
1. Robert Jamieson, Andrew Robert Fausset, and David Brown: Whose god is their belly (Romans 16:18) - hereafter to be destroyed by; God (1 Corinthians 6:13): in contrast to our "body" (Philippians 3:21), which our God, the Lord Jesus, shall 'fashion like unto His glorious body.' Their belly is now pampered, our body now wasted: then the states of both shall be reversed.
http://www.studylight.org/commentaries/jfu/philippians-3.html#1
2. Matthew Poole: Whose God is their belly; the great business of these is, their sensuality, their good eating and drinking; they mind the pleasing of their carnal appetite, as if it were their God...instead of our Lord Jesus Christ.
http://www.studylight.org/commentaries/mpc/philippians-3.html

 

[Binyawmene]

Absolutely!

You're hitting on something Trins have broached many times in many ways, namely the fact divine attributes are applied to both God and Jesus throughout the Bible AND applied in a manner that would otherwise be heretical and apostate if it were not true exactly as written. God saves. So does Jesus. If God alone saves and Jesus is not God, then Jesus cannot also save. If God and Jesus save, the Father and the Son save, then Jesus is God (along with the Father) and there aren't multiple gods.

Haha. Funny, but yes, God Alone, salvation is monergistic. The context of the Divine title Savior is in relation to the Christian salvation experience and it's not based on God who used Old Testament heroic men, saving the nation in war, etc. There is no need to conflate the differences like how Unitarians do.

This is the Scriptural pattern you find in the New Testament:

Savior
our Savior
our God/Lord and Savior
God our Savior​

There is no specific verse that says, "our Savior, the Holy Spirit" or something similar. However, the Holy Spirit is the agent of our salvation. The Holy Spirit comes to live in our hearts. He applies what Christ has accomplished for us and our salvation. Without the Holy Spirit, all that Christ has done for us and our salvation would bring no value to us. Through the power of the Holy Spirit, believers are regenerated, saved, filled, sealed, and sanctified, etc. The Holy Spirit reveals God’s thoughts, teaches, and guides believers into all truth, including knowledge of what is to come. The Holy Spirit also helps Christians in their weakness and intercedes for them. Sounds like a Savior to me, after all, the Holy Spirit is God.

Revelations 7:9-10 After this I looked, and there before me was a great multitude that no one could count, from every nation, tribe, people and language, standing before the throne and before the Lamb. They were wearing white robes and were holding palm branches in their hands. And they cried out in a loud voice:

“Salvation belongs to our God, who sits on the throne, and to the Lamb.”​

 

[Binyawmene]

This idolatry of those whose glory is in their shame (Philippians 3:19) echoes Old Testament passages in relation to misplaced worship rendered unto idols, instead of worship that is due unto God alone.

Amen. You are really good at giving those NT and OT examples.

In the OT we see the Divine title phrase "God our Savior" (1 Chronicles 16:35, Psalm 65:5, 68:19, 79:9, 85:4) and in the NT we see the same Divine title phrase (1 Timothy 1:1, 2:3, Titus 1:3, 2:10, 3:4, Jude 1:25). But here is the thing, Paul is very distinctive by the phrase "God our Savior," which is including both the Father and the Son.

1). Paul identifies "God" as the Father and "Savior" as Jesus Christ" from the Divine title phrase.

Titus 1:3-4 ...and which now at his appointed season he has brought to light through the preaching entrusted to me by the command of God our Savior,​

​

To Titus, my true son in our common faith: Grace and peace from God the Father and Christ Jesus our Savior.​

​

​

2). Then Paul identifies both "God" and "Savior" as Jesus Christ from the Divine title phrase.​

​

Titus 2:10, 13 and not to steal from them, but to show that they can be fully trusted, so that in every way they will make the teaching about God our Savior attractive.​

​

while we wait for the blessed hope—the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ,​

​

3). In Christ's return, who is doing the appearing? The Father or the Son? Like how Paul made the distinction in 1 Corinthians 8:6 to appeal to the Shema. Also, you see the same example again, God our Savior appeared (or the manifestation, Word became flesh)​

​

Titus 3:4-6 But when the kindness and love of God our Savior appeared,​

​

he saved us, not because of righteous things we had done, but because of his mercy. He saved us through the washing of rebirth and renewal by the Holy Spirit,​

​

whom he poured out on us generously through Jesus Christ our Savior,​

 

[Keiw1]

In the New Testament, the word "Savior" is mention 24 times. And examining the Bible verses was quite an interesting Bible study. First, let's start off by acknowledging the fact that there is no other God-Saviors (Isaiah 43:11, 45:21, Hosea 13:4). Even Mary, the mother of Jesus, glorifies the Lord and rejoices in God as her Savior too (Luke 1:46-48). From King David's descendants, Jesus is refer to as the Savior from birth (Acts 13:23, Luke 2:11, Romans 9:5) and also in his exaltation (Acts 5:31, Ephesians 5:23, Philippians 3:20). It's not contradictory to "no other God-Savior" since both Paul and Peter identifies Jesus as "our God/Lord and Savior" (Titus 2:13, 2 Peter 1:1, 11, 2:20, 3:2, 18). And also, to "our savior" (2 Timothy 1:10, Titus 1:4, 3:6) without the emphasis of God/Lord.

However, there is only one verse that calls the Savior a man (John 4:42). Could it be that "they" (the Samaritans) were only viewing Jesus from an outward appearance of a man? After all, the Samaritans don't have the extensional context that Jesus is God incarnate (John 1:10-11). For example: Let's say that the citizens of Gotham only know that Batman that saved their city. But they don't know that Bruce Wayne is Batman. They don't have that extensional context. I, and you, we both know that Bruce Wayne is, in fact, Batman. It’s true that if Batman saved Gotham, then we can say that Bruce Wayne saved Gotham. But it would be fallacious to say that the citizens of Gotham knows that Bruce Wayne is Batman. I suppose the Samaritans could have read the Old Testament that "Savior" is always applied to God and Lord, and never applied to a man.

I've pretty much established the basis that the person of the Son in the Trinity is the God-Savior. But here is the main question and purpose of this thread. Is the "Savior" applied to the Son alone in the Trinity (as if the Father doesn't share the same Divine title "Savior") or does the New Testament apply it to the Father too? I personally say that the Divine title "Savior" is also in reference to the Father. Paul is very distinctive by the phrase "God our Savior" is in reference to the Father (1 Timothy 1:1, 2:3, Titus 1:3, 2:10, 3:4, Jude 1:25). After all, "only God our Savior" (Jude 25) is in reference to the Father, and "our God and Savior Jesus Christ" (2 Peter 1:1) is in reference to the Son. The Son is being on the same value level equally with the Father. Because the Son possesses those godness qualities that the Father alone possesses as being "God" and "Savior." As Trinitarians, we believe in one God, and all three persons is that "God-Savior" and there is no other savior or apart from God. All three persons is working salvation in us. Therefore, God is the Savior (1 Timothy 4:10, 1 John 4:14) as Scriptures testify.

Jehovah the only true God was savior in the OT. Upon Jesus' completion of his earthly sacrifice he became a savior as well. Psalm 110:1, quoted at Matt 22:44 proves 100% Jesus is not Jehovah.
If Jesus failed his sacrifice he wouldnt be a savior.

 

[Binyawmene]

Jehovah the only true God was savior in the OT. Upon Jesus' completion of his earthly sacrifice he became a savior as well. Psalm 110:1, quoted at Matt 22:44 proves 100% Jesus is not Jehovah.
If Jesus failed his sacrifice he wouldnt be a savior.

Yes, I am aware of what Unitarians believe. They acknowledge the fact that there are no other saviors (Isaiah 43:11, 45:21, Hosea 13:4). Or there no savior that is working exclusively and independently apart from God. For example, God who used Old Testament heroic men to deliver the nation in war, because of the Israelites disobediences (Judges 2:16-19, Othniel 3:7-11, Ehud, Shamgar, Deborah, Gideon, etc. Nehemiah 9:27, 2 Kings 13:5, Isaiah 19:20). While the context in the New Testament is based on the Christian salvation, and in the same manner, Jesus Christ is not working exclusively and independently apart from the Father. Unitarians would suggest that Jesus Christ was just another savior that in line with all the other saviors before him, nothing special, and that he is not God. So, often times, there is a conflation between OT saviors and NT Jesus Christ as Savior.

Upon Jesus' completion of his earthly sacrifice he became a savior as well.

It is true that Jesus Christ is the author of the eternal salvation. But it wasn't official until he finishes the provision and accomplishes though things he did for us and for our salvation. If you notice in Hebrews 5:9 is in reference to his death into his exaltation:

and, once made perfect, he became the source of eternal salvation for all who obey him (Hebrews 2:10, 12:2).​

In other words, while he was on earth he still has to complete or finish the character of the Savior through the sufferings of life, death, and resurrection into his exaltation. It begins at his birth (Acts 13:23, Luke 2:11, Romans 9:5), once the completeness is finished, then his is officially the Savior upon his exaltation (Acts 5:31, Ephesians 5:23, Philippians 3:20).

 

[Keiw1]

Yes, I am aware of what Unitarians believe. They acknowledge the fact that there are no other saviors (Isaiah 43:11, 45:21, Hosea 13:4). Or there no savior that is working exclusively and independently apart from God. For example, God who used Old Testament heroic men to deliver the nation in war, because of the Israelites disobediences (Judges 2:16-19, Othniel 3:7-11, Ehud, Shamgar, Deborah, Gideon, etc. Nehemiah 9:27, 2 Kings 13:5, Isaiah 19:20). While the context in the New Testament is based on the Christian salvation, and in the same manner, Jesus Christ is not working exclusively and independently apart from the Father. Unitarians would suggest that Jesus Christ was just another savior that in line with all the other saviors before him, nothing special, and that he is not God. So, often times, there is a conflation between OT saviors and NT Jesus Christ as Savior.



It is true that Jesus Christ is the author of the eternal salvation. But it wasn't official until he finishes the provision and accomplishes though things he did for us and for our salvation. If you notice in Hebrews 5:9 is in reference to his death into his exaltation:

and, once made perfect, he became the source of eternal salvation for all who obey him (Hebrews 2:10, 12:2).​

In other words, while he was on earth he still has to complete or finish the character of the Savior through the sufferings of life, death, and resurrection into his exaltation. It begins at his birth (Acts 13:23, Luke 2:11, Romans 9:5), once the completeness is finished, then his is officially the Savior upon his exaltation (Acts 5:31, Ephesians 5:23, Philippians 3:20).

Jesus isn't God, he is Gods son. ALL sons are created by their Father. Jesus has a God just like us( created beings)

 

[Binyawmene]

Jesus isn't God, he is Gods son. ALL sons are created by their Father. Jesus has a God just like us( created beings)

Are you a Jehovah Witnesses? When it comes to the Deity of Christ, the debate is usually centered on the Granville Sharp’s rule and the Two-Person view argument concerning these two verses (2 Peter 1:1, Titus 2:13). Or do you have a different argument you like to share?

 

[CrowCross]

In the New Testament, the word "Savior" is mention 24 times. And examining the Bible verses was quite an interesting Bible study. First, let's start off by acknowledging the fact that there is no other God-Saviors (Isaiah 43:11, 45:21, Hosea 13:4). Even Mary, the mother of Jesus, glorifies the Lord and rejoices in God as her Savior too (Luke 1:46-48). From King David's descendants, Jesus is refer to as the Savior from birth (Acts 13:23, Luke 2:11, Romans 9:5) and also in his exaltation (Acts 5:31, Ephesians 5:23, Philippians 3:20). It's not contradictory to "no other God-Savior" since both Paul and Peter identifies Jesus as "our God/Lord and Savior" (Titus 2:13, 2 Peter 1:1, 11, 2:20, 3:2, 18). And also, to "our savior" (2 Timothy 1:10, Titus 1:4, 3:6) without the emphasis of God/Lord.

However, there is only one verse that calls the Savior a man (John 4:42). Could it be that "they" (the Samaritans) were only viewing Jesus from an outward appearance of a man? After all, the Samaritans don't have the extensional context that Jesus is God incarnate (John 1:10-11). For example: Let's say that the citizens of Gotham only know that Batman that saved their city. But they don't know that Bruce Wayne is Batman. They don't have that extensional context. I, and you, we both know that Bruce Wayne is, in fact, Batman. It’s true that if Batman saved Gotham, then we can say that Bruce Wayne saved Gotham. But it would be fallacious to say that the citizens of Gotham knows that Bruce Wayne is Batman. I suppose the Samaritans could have read the Old Testament that "Savior" is always applied to God and Lord, and never applied to a man.

I've pretty much established the basis that the person of the Son in the Trinity is the God-Savior. But here is the main question and purpose of this thread. Is the "Savior" applied to the Son alone in the Trinity (as if the Father doesn't share the same Divine title "Savior") or does the New Testament apply it to the Father too? I personally say that the Divine title "Savior" is also in reference to the Father. Paul is very distinctive by the phrase "God our Savior" is in reference to the Father (1 Timothy 1:1, 2:3, Titus 1:3, 2:10, 3:4, Jude 1:25). After all, "only God our Savior" (Jude 25) is in reference to the Father, and "our God and Savior Jesus Christ" (2 Peter 1:1) is in reference to the Son. The Son is being on the same value level equally with the Father. Because the Son possesses those godness qualities that the Father alone possesses as being "God" and "Savior." As Trinitarians, we believe in one God, and all three persons is that "God-Savior" and there is no other savior or apart from God. All three persons is working salvation in us. Therefore, God is the Savior (1 Timothy 4:10, 1 John 4:14) as Scriptures testify.

I like that Batman..Bruce Wayne....analogy.

 

[Keiw1]

Are you a Jehovah Witnesses? When it comes to the Deity of Christ, the debate is usually centered on the Granville Sharp’s rule and the Two-Person view argument concerning these two verses (2 Peter 1:1, Titus 2:13). Or do you have a different argument you like to share?

In every Greek lexicon known, the word is not called capitol G God at John 1:1. At John 1:1 the true God called Ton Theon, the word called Theos,=god, only 1 other spot in NT has that=2Cor 4:4--the true God called Ton Theon, satan called Theos=god. In the NT in many spots when the true God is spoken of as the only one mentioned as God he is called Theos because all know the true God is being spoken of. But when 2 in the same paragraph are being called God-god, the true God was called Ton Theon--the word was not called that. A major deception misleading all to break Gods #1 commandment by not serving the Father as the only true God( John 17:3) 1Cor 8:6, John 4:22-24)
Jesus has a God= before earth( Psalm 45:7) on earth( John 20:17) Back in heaven ( Rev 3:12) Fact= God does not have a God.

 

[Binyawmene]

In every Greek lexicon known, the word is not called capitol G God at John 1:1. At John 1:1 the true God called Ton Theon, the word called Theos,=god, only 1 other spot in NT has that=2Cor 4:4--the true God called Ton Theon, satan called Theos=god. In the NT in many spots when the true God is spoken of as the only one mentioned as God he is called Theos because all know the true God is being spoken of. But when 2 in the same paragraph are being called God-god, the true God was called Ton Theon--the word was not called that. A major deception misleading all to break Gods #1 commandment by not serving the Father as the only true God( John 17:3) 1Cor 8:6, John 4:22-24)
Jesus has a God= before earth( Psalm 45:7) on earth( John 20:17) Back in heaven ( Rev 3:12) Fact= God does not have a God.

Are you a Jehovah Witnesses?

 

[Fred]

In every Greek lexicon known, the word is not called capitol G God at John 1:1.

Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament: Based on Semantic Domains: it is legitimate to interpret Jn. 1.1 as ‘the Word was God’
(12.1, theos, page 137, J. P. Louw and Eugene Nida).

 

[Fred]

Are you a Jehovah Witnesses?

https://christcentered.community.forum/threads/how-do-we-discern-wolves-in-sheeps-clothing.1258/page-6#post-71170

 

[Keiw1]

Are you a Jehovah Witnesses?

yes i am.

 

[Keiw1]

Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament: Based on Semantic Domains: it is legitimate to interpret Jn. 1.1 as ‘the Word was God’
(12.1, theos, page 137, J. P. Louw and Eugene Nida).

The false religions have to say that, otherwise they would expose themselves as false religion saying truth on the matter.

 

[Mr GLee]

In the New Testament, the word "Savior" is mention 24 times. And examining the Bible verses was quite an interesting Bible study. First, let's start off by acknowledging the fact that there is no other God-Saviors (Isaiah 43:11, 45:21, Hosea 13:4). Even Mary, the mother of Jesus, glorifies the Lord and rejoices in God as her Savior too (Luke 1:46-48). From King David's descendants, Jesus is refer to as the Savior from birth (Acts 13:23, Luke 2:11, Romans 9:5) and also in his exaltation (Acts 5:31, Ephesians 5:23, Philippians 3:20). It's not contradictory to "no other God-Savior" since both Paul and Peter identifies Jesus as "our God/Lord and Savior" (Titus 2:13, 2 Peter 1:1, 11, 2:20, 3:2, 18). And also, to "our savior" (2 Timothy 1:10, Titus 1:4, 3:6) without the emphasis of God/Lord.

However, there is only one verse that calls the Savior a man (John 4:42). Could it be that "they" (the Samaritans) were only viewing Jesus from an outward appearance of a man? After all, the Samaritans don't have the extensional context that Jesus is God incarnate (John 1:10-11). For example: Let's say that the citizens of Gotham only know that Batman that saved their city. But they don't know that Bruce Wayne is Batman. They don't have that extensional context. I, and you, we both know that Bruce Wayne is, in fact, Batman. It’s true that if Batman saved Gotham, then we can say that Bruce Wayne saved Gotham. But it would be fallacious to say that the citizens of Gotham knows that Bruce Wayne is Batman. I suppose the Samaritans could have read the Old Testament that "Savior" is always applied to God and Lord, and never applied to a man.

I've pretty much established the basis that the person of the Son in the Trinity is the God-Savior. But here is the main question and purpose of this thread. Is the "Savior" applied to the Son alone in the Trinity (as if the Father doesn't share the same Divine title "Savior") or does the New Testament apply it to the Father too? I personally say that the Divine title "Savior" is also in reference to the Father. Paul is very distinctive by the phrase "God our Savior" is in reference to the Father (1 Timothy 1:1, 2:3, Titus 1:3, 2:10, 3:4, Jude 1:25). After all, "only God our Savior" (Jude 25) is in reference to the Father, and "our God and Savior Jesus Christ" (2 Peter 1:1) is in reference to the Son. The Son is being on the same value level equally with the Father. Because the Son possesses those godness qualities that the Father alone possesses as being "God" and "Savior." As Trinitarians, we believe in one God, and all three persons is that "God-Savior" and there is no other savior or apart from God. All three persons is working salvation in us. Therefore, God is the Savior (1 Timothy 4:10, 1 John 4:14) as Scriptures testify.

I would offer two is the witness one God has spoken .You could say the " (1) let there be and (2) "it was good". A faithful work of His labor of love.

Two saviors . The one seen the temporal Jesus the Son of man displaying as a sign to the world the power of Jehovah our Almighty God has become our savior. The us in Genesis 1:26

A miracle, a invisible from God showing his love to the world using the things he created as reflections of the glory of his living abiding word

The kind of food the disciples at first knew not of at first . The food of the father daily bread or called hidden manna in Revelation 2:17 The food that both reveals His understanding and empowers dying mankind to do it to His glory.

John 4:33-35King James Version33 Therefore said the disciples one to another, Hath any man brought him ought to eat?
Jesus saith unto them, My meat is to do the will of him that sent me, and to finish his work.

John 5:17But Jesus answered them, My Father worketh hitherto, and I work.

John 5:30 I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me.

The law of "two witnesses" .

 

[Fred]

The false religions have to say that, otherwise they would expose themselves as false religion saying truth on the matter.

Your false claim in post 12 just bit the dust.

Thanks for making that easy for me.

 

[CrowCross]

Your false claim in post 12 just bit the dust.

Thanks for making that easy for me.

Keiw1 seems to think one needs some sort of theological degree or an understanding of the Greek lexicon to understand th truth.