God alone is the Savior

[Mr GLee]

Where does the bible say that?

Jesus appeared in the locked room...told Tommy to touch him if he didn't believe He was Jesus....and Tommy got it...and called Jesus his Lord and God.

There is NOTHING about Tommy responding to the word of the Father the invisible head. What gives you the right to add that to the verse?

When he touched him, Christ the lord the invisible head and not Jesus the Son of man the apostle.The Father not seen gave words to Jesus the Son. The father lovingly commanding Tommy to not be faithless (insisting on seeing and touching) but rather believe the unseen eternal spiritual things of the Holy Father.

Tommy did believe as a labor of Christ love working in him and with his mouth confessed God is Lord. Did .not confess the Son of man dying mankind is Lord of lords

God is not a Jewish man as King of kings.

John 20:27 Then saith he to Thomas, Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust it into my side: and be not faithless, but believing.

One work two fold (1) believe exercise the faith of Christ that works in us, with us And (2) the other be not faithless.

 

[Runningman]

Where does the bible say that?

Jesus appeared in the locked room...told Tommy to touch him if he didn't believe He was Jesus....and Tommy got it...and called Jesus his Lord and God.

There is NOTHING about Tommy responding to the word of the Father the invisible head. What gives you the right to add that to the verse?

For Thomas to have called Jesus Lord and God he would have needed to say it in the vocative case, which he didn't. Thomas used the nominative case as recorded by John, which is equal to Thomas making an open statement about an unspecified Lord and God without saying Jesus is the one he's referring to. You can compare this to Matthew 16:16 where Peter explicitly told Jesus "you" are the Christ and the Son of the Living God in the vocative case.

We can get some context. In John 20:17, Jesus said his and his brothers God is the Father. God doesn't have a God or else that would be two Gods and unnecessary redundancy, essentially nonsensical gibberish. If Jesus is a man with a God then there is no problem. Starting to get it yet?

 

[Mr GLee]

For Thomas to have called Jesus Lord and God he would have needed to say it in the vocative case, which he didn't. Thomas used the nominative case as recorded by John, which is equal to Thomas making an open statement about an unspecified Lord and God without saying Jesus is the one he's referring to. You can compare this to Matthew 16:16 where Peter explicitly told Jesus "you" are the Christ and the Son of the Living God in the vocative case.

We can get some context. In John 20:17, Jesus said his and his brothers God is the Father. God doesn't have a God or else that would be two Gods and unnecessary redundancy, essentially nonsensical gibberish. If Jesus is a man with a God then there is no problem. Starting to get it yet?

Yes its not what we do see the dying temporal historical but the things we do not see . Things of faith the invisible working of Christ .

Words of faith "Let there be" Same kind of words (spirt and life) breathed on the eleven when Thomas was absent

John 6 6:63 It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: (zero nada) the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.

Same kind of living loving word below

Matthew 8:8 The centurion answered and said, Lord, I am not worthy that thou shouldest come under my roof: but speak the word only, and my servant shall be healed.

Again the law of faith. . God's invisible power . Let there be and "Thomas as the other 11 were saved"

John 20:21-23 Then said Jesus to them again, Peace be unto you: as my Father hath sent me, even so send I you. And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and saith unto them,(words of the father) Receive ye the Holy Ghost: Whose soever sins ye remit, they are remitted unto them; and whose soever sins ye retain, they are retained.

John 20:27 Then saith he to Thomas, Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust it into my side: and (the loving let there be commandment) be not faithless, but believing.

The loving commandment be not faithless ( but rather be a beliers Then the confession of faith moved by the Holy Soirt

Romans 10:9-10 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, (let there be) and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, (the and it is was God alone god) thou shalt be saved.For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation.

 

[CrowCross]

For Thomas to have called Jesus Lord and God he would have needed to say it in the vocative case, which he didn't. Thomas used the nominative case as recorded by John, which is equal to Thomas making an open statement about an unspecified Lord and God without saying Jesus is the one he's referring to. You can compare this to Matthew 16:16 where Peter explicitly told Jesus "you" are the Christ and the Son of the Living God in the vocative case.

We can get some context. In John 20:17, Jesus said his and his brothers God is the Father. God doesn't have a God or else that would be two Gods and unnecessary redundancy, essentially nonsensical gibberish. If Jesus is a man with a God then there is no problem. Starting to get it yet?

LOL...one don't need to go to that extent...vocative case...nominative case...whatever.

From a simple reading of the bible Jesus shows up...Thomas see's Jesus and perhaps even touches Jesus' scars...and Thomas then calls Jesus Lord and God. That's what it says.
You are the one who is adding the nonsensical gibberish to the bible. Have you ever noticed EVERY TIME an anti-trintite wants to show Jesus isn't God they always have to say...here's what the bible really says...or...there is a mistranslation. EVERY TIME. You even do it with John 1.

 

[grace2]

For Thomas to have called Jesus Lord and God he would have needed to say it in the vocative case, which he didn't. Thomas used the nominative case as recorded by John, which is equal to Thomas making an open statement about an unspecified Lord and God without saying Jesus is the one he's referring to. You can compare this to Matthew 16:16 where Peter explicitly told Jesus "you" are the Christ and the Son of the Living God in the vocative case.

We can get some context. In John 20:17, Jesus said his and his brothers God is the Father. God doesn't have a God or else that would be two Gods and unnecessary redundancy, essentially nonsensical gibberish. If Jesus is a man with a God then there is no problem. Starting to get it yet?

He was addressing both the Father and the Son.

 

[Mr GLee]

LOL...one don't need to go to that extent...vocative case...nominative case...whatever.

From a simple reading of the bible Jesus shows up...Thomas see's Jesus and perhaps even touches Jesus' scars...and Thomas then calls Jesus Lord and God. That's what it says.
You are the one who is adding the nonsensical gibberish to the bible. Have you ever noticed EVERY TIME an anti-trintite wants to show Jesus isn't God they always have to say...here's what the bible really says...or...there is a mistranslation. EVERY TIME. You even do it with John 1.

Why not admit you do not know who Christ is and his purpose . Certainly he is not the Son of man Jesus (dying flesh and blood

.Jesus is our brother it the lord. All of mankind must be born again.. Including the Son of man Jesus Christ's prophet apostle

God is not a man

Prove he is not our brother?

Matthew 12:50 For whosoever shall do the will of my Father which is in heaven, the same is my brother, and sister, and mother.

Mark 3:35 For whosoever shall do the will of God, the same is my brother, and my sister, and mother.

Is Jesus your brother in the Lord?

 

[CrowCross]

Why not admit you do not know who Christ is and his purpose . Certainly he is not the Son of man Jesus (dying flesh and blood

.Jesus is our brother it the lord. All of mankind must be born again.. Including the Son of man Jesus Christ's prophet apostle

God is not a man

Prove he is not our brother?

Matthew 12:50 For whosoever shall do the will of my Father which is in heaven, the same is my brother, and sister, and mother.

Mark 3:35 For whosoever shall do the will of God, the same is my brother, and my sister, and mother.

Is Jesus your brother in the Lord?

If Jesus isn't the God/man...how could a mere finite man pay the eternal price?