Binyawmene
Junior
- Joined
- Jun 4, 2023
- Messages
- 417
- Reaction score
- 323
- Points
- 63
- Location
- Ohio
- Faith
- Reformed Christian. Trinitarian/Hypostatic Unionist.
- Country
- USA
In the New Testament, the word "Savior" is mention 24 times. And examining the Bible verses was quite an interesting Bible study. First, let's start off by acknowledging the fact that there is no other God-Saviors (Isaiah 43:11, 45:21, Hosea 13:4). Even Mary, the mother of Jesus, glorifies the Lord and rejoices in God as her Savior too (Luke 1:46-48). From King David's descendants, Jesus is refer to as the Savior from birth (Acts 13:23, Luke 2:11, Romans 9:5) and also in his exaltation (Acts 5:31, Ephesians 5:23, Philippians 3:20). It's not contradictory to "no other God-Savior" since both Paul and Peter identifies Jesus as "our God/Lord and Savior" (Titus 2:13, 2 Peter 1:1, 11, 2:20, 3:2, 18). And also, to "our savior" (2 Timothy 1:10, Titus 1:4, 3:6) without the emphasis of God/Lord.
However, there is only one verse that calls the Savior a man (John 4:42). Could it be that "they" (the Samaritans) were only viewing Jesus from an outward appearance of a man? After all, the Samaritans don't have the extensional context that Jesus is God incarnate (John 1:10-11). For example: Let's say that the citizens of Gotham only know that Batman that saved their city. But they don't know that Bruce Wayne is Batman. They don't have that extensional context. I, and you, we both know that Bruce Wayne is, in fact, Batman. It’s true that if Batman saved Gotham, then we can say that Bruce Wayne saved Gotham. But it would be fallacious to say that the citizens of Gotham knows that Bruce Wayne is Batman. I suppose the Samaritans could have read the Old Testament that "Savior" is always applied to God and Lord, and never applied to a man.
I've pretty much established the basis that the person of the Son in the Trinity is the God-Savior. But here is the main question and purpose of this thread. Is the "Savior" applied to the Son alone in the Trinity (as if the Father doesn't share the same Divine title "Savior") or does the New Testament apply it to the Father too? I personally say that the Divine title "Savior" is also in reference to the Father. Paul is very distinctive by the phrase "God our Savior" is in reference to the Father (1 Timothy 1:1, 2:3, Titus 1:3, 2:10, 3:4, Jude 1:25). After all, "only God our Savior" (Jude 25) is in reference to the Father, and "our God and Savior Jesus Christ" (2 Peter 1:1) is in reference to the Son. The Son is being on the same value level equally with the Father. Because the Son possesses those godness qualities that the Father alone possesses as being "God" and "Savior." As Trinitarians, we believe in one God, and all three persons is that "God-Savior" and there is no other savior or apart from God. All three persons is working salvation in us. Therefore, God is the Savior (1 Timothy 4:10, 1 John 4:14) as Scriptures testify.
However, there is only one verse that calls the Savior a man (John 4:42). Could it be that "they" (the Samaritans) were only viewing Jesus from an outward appearance of a man? After all, the Samaritans don't have the extensional context that Jesus is God incarnate (John 1:10-11). For example: Let's say that the citizens of Gotham only know that Batman that saved their city. But they don't know that Bruce Wayne is Batman. They don't have that extensional context. I, and you, we both know that Bruce Wayne is, in fact, Batman. It’s true that if Batman saved Gotham, then we can say that Bruce Wayne saved Gotham. But it would be fallacious to say that the citizens of Gotham knows that Bruce Wayne is Batman. I suppose the Samaritans could have read the Old Testament that "Savior" is always applied to God and Lord, and never applied to a man.
I've pretty much established the basis that the person of the Son in the Trinity is the God-Savior. But here is the main question and purpose of this thread. Is the "Savior" applied to the Son alone in the Trinity (as if the Father doesn't share the same Divine title "Savior") or does the New Testament apply it to the Father too? I personally say that the Divine title "Savior" is also in reference to the Father. Paul is very distinctive by the phrase "God our Savior" is in reference to the Father (1 Timothy 1:1, 2:3, Titus 1:3, 2:10, 3:4, Jude 1:25). After all, "only God our Savior" (Jude 25) is in reference to the Father, and "our God and Savior Jesus Christ" (2 Peter 1:1) is in reference to the Son. The Son is being on the same value level equally with the Father. Because the Son possesses those godness qualities that the Father alone possesses as being "God" and "Savior." As Trinitarians, we believe in one God, and all three persons is that "God-Savior" and there is no other savior or apart from God. All three persons is working salvation in us. Therefore, God is the Savior (1 Timothy 4:10, 1 John 4:14) as Scriptures testify.