Yahweh 301,302 or Trinity 301,302

[Runningman]

Indeed!. . .including:

Mt 3:3 and Lk 1:67-68, 76 regarding Isa 40:3 that Jesus is the YHWH of whom the voice calling in the wilderness (John the Baptist) prepared the way.

Ro 10:9, 13 regarding Joel 2:32 where Paul teaches Jesus is the YHWH of Joel's prophecy that "everyone who calls on the name of YHWH will be saved."

Heb 1:6 regarding Dt 32:43 where Heb quotes Moses' song referring to YHWH and says it applies to Jesus.

Rev 1:12-18 regarding Isa 44:6, 48:12 where John says the man in the vision is Jesus (Jn 1:18, 2:8) who identifies himself as the First and the Last which is YHWH identification of himself.

Rev 21:6, 22:12-13 regarding Rev 1:8 where John says the man in the vision (Jesus) identifies himself as the Alpha and Omega of Rev 1:8, which is YHWH.

Rev 21:5-7 regarding Rev 20:11-13 where John says Jesus, the one on the throne (Rev 20:11-13 with Jn 5:22, 27, 9:39), is God (Rev 21:7).

Jn 1:3, Col 1:16-17, Heb 1:2b, 10 where John and Paul say the YHWH who created all things (Ge 1:1, Is 44:24, Jer 10:16) is Jesus.

To hear the apostles is to hear Jesus, and to reject the above teaching of the apostles is to reject the teaching of Jesus (Lk 10:16).

Great, then you do agree Jesus is not YHWH in Psalm 110:1? So why do you keep saying they are the same person when the Bible doesn't explicitly say so, but when the Bible does explicitly show they are not the same person you still say they're the same?

 

[Fred]

Person 1 = Great God
Person 2 = Savior Jesus

That's two different persons.

To whom does "a people for His own possession" refer to in Titus 2:14?

 

[Fred]

Great, then you do agree Jesus is not YHWH in Psalm 110:1?

Psalm 110:1 is further proof Jesus is YHWH.

https://christcentered.community.forum/threads/jesus-is-the-lord-yhwh-in-1-corinthians-10-26-psalm-24-1-and-deuteronomy-6-4.603/#post-24596

 

[Runningman]

To whom does "a people for His own possession" refer to in Titus 2:14?

Titus 2:14 is in regards to the Great God (the Father) and savior Jesus appearing. When they appear, God brings Jesus and they appear together, not as a single person.

1 Thess 4
14For since we believe that Jesus died and rose again, we also believe that God will bring with Jesus those who have fallen asleep in Him.

 

[Runningman]

Psalm 110:1 is further proof Jesus is YHWH.

https://christcentered.community.forum/threads/jesus-is-the-lord-yhwh-in-1-corinthians-10-26-psalm-24-1-and-deuteronomy-6-4.603/#post-24596

Psalm 110:1 isn't God having a conversation with Himself and telling Himself to sit at His own right hand until His enemies are His footstool. That's nonsense. It's proof Jesus isn't YHWH.

 

[Fred]

Titus 2:14 is in regards to the Great God (the Father) and savior Jesus appearing. When they appear, God brings Jesus and they appear together, not as a single person.

The singular pronoun ("His") in Titus 2:14 refers to both the Father and to the Lord Jesus?

 

[Fred]

Psalm 110:1

Is the Lord Jesus the proper recipient of pelach in Daniel 7:14?

 

[Runningman]

The singular pronoun ("His") in Titus 2:14 refers to both the Father and to the Lord Jesus?

God refers to the only mentioned God in the chapter. Jesus is the one who was sacrificed. God didn't die on a tree.

 

[Fred]

God refers to the only mentioned God in the chapter.

Strawman.

I asked you about the singular use of "His".

Don't try dodging this.

 

[Runningman]

Is the Lord Jesus the proper recipient of pelach in Daniel 7:14?

Daniel is essentially referring to what Micah did, but Micah clarifies that the one he is talking about isn't God. It's a man who's God is YHWH.

Micah 5
2But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah,
who are small among the clans of Judah,
out of you will come forth for Me
One to be ruler over Israel—
One whose origins are of old,
from the days of eternity.
4He will stand and shepherd His flock
in the strength of the LORD,
in the majestic name of the LORD His God.
And they will dwell securely,
for then His greatness will extend
to the ends of the earth.

 

[Runningman]

Strawman.

I asked you about the singular use of "His".

Don't try dodging this.

It isn't a straw man. I am helping you understand what Titus 2 is about since you came out with an error and said Jesus is God.

 

[Fred]

Daniel is essentially referring to what Micah did,

Great.

Now you can actually try answering the question from post 227.

 

[Fred]

It isn't a straw man. I am helping you understand what Titus 2 is about since you came out with an error and said Jesus is God.

Now you can try answering the question from post 226.

You're sinking...fast.

 

[Runningman]

Great.

Now you can actually try answering the question from post 227.

?

I already answered it. Your premise is Jesus is God and Micah 5:4 proves otherwise.

 

[Runningman]

Now you can try answering the question from post 226.

You're sinking...fast.

?

I answered this too.

The one who gave himself is Jesus, not God. You've really backed yourself into a corner here.

Matt 20
28just as the Son of Man did not come to be served, but to serve, and to give His life as a ransom for many.”

 

[Fred]

?

I already answered it.

You are confused.

 

[Runningman]

You mentioned "God" and "Jesus" in your response.

Thanks for affirming the singular pronoun refers to both.

I didn't say that. Do not assign things to me I didn't say.

Great God = person 1
Savior Jesus = person 2

Throughout the Bible God and Jesus are never the same person. They didn't suddenly merge in Titus 2:14.

2 Peter 1
2Grace and peace be multiplied to you through the knowledge of God and of Jesus our Lord.

Two persons right?

 

[Fred]

?

I answered this too.

The one who gave himself is Jesus, not God. You've really backed yourself into a corner here.

I didn't ask you who gave Himself refers to.

I asked you this:

To whom does "a people for His own possession" refer to in Titus 2:14?

 

[Fred]

I didn't say that.

Then learn how to answer questions more specifically and stop hiding simply because your false doctrine can't be defended.

 

[Runningman]

I didn't ask you who gave Himself refers to.

I asked you this:

To whom does "a people for His own possession" refer to in Titus 2:14?

You need to know that the one who "gave himself" is Jesus so you can understand who the "he" is referring to. Yes we do belong to Jesus, but Jesus belongs to God.

1 Cor 3
23and you belong to Christ, and Christ belongs to God.