Great, then you do agree Jesus is not YHWH in Psalm 110:1? So why do you keep saying they are the same person when the Bible doesn't explicitly say so, but when the Bible does explicitly show they are not the same person you still say they're the same?Indeed!. . .including:
Mt 3:3 and Lk 1:67-68, 76 regarding Isa 40:3 that Jesus is the YHWH of whom the voice calling in the wilderness (John the Baptist) prepared the way.
Ro 10:9, 13 regarding Joel 2:32 where Paul teaches Jesus is the YHWH of Joel's prophecy that "everyone who calls on the name of YHWH will be saved."
Heb 1:6 regarding Dt 32:43 where Heb quotes Moses' song referring to YHWH and says it applies to Jesus.
Rev 1:12-18 regarding Isa 44:6, 48:12 where John says the man in the vision is Jesus (Jn 1:18, 2:8) who identifies himself as the First and the Last which is YHWH identification of himself.
Rev 21:6, 22:12-13 regarding Rev 1:8 where John says the man in the vision (Jesus) identifies himself as the Alpha and Omega of Rev 1:8, which is YHWH.
Rev 21:5-7 regarding Rev 20:11-13 where John says Jesus, the one on the throne (Rev 20:11-13 with Jn 5:22, 27, 9:39), is God (Rev 21:7).
Jn 1:3, Col 1:16-17, Heb 1:2b, 10 where John and Paul say the YHWH who created all things (Ge 1:1, Is 44:24, Jer 10:16) is Jesus.
To hear the apostles is to hear Jesus, and to reject the above teaching of the apostles is to reject the teaching of Jesus (Lk 10:16).
Person 1 = Great God
Person 2 = Savior Jesus
That's two different persons.
Great, then you do agree Jesus is not YHWH in Psalm 110:1?
Titus 2:14 is in regards to the Great God (the Father) and savior Jesus appearing. When they appear, God brings Jesus and they appear together, not as a single person.To whom does "a people for His own possession" refer to in Titus 2:14?
Psalm 110:1 isn't God having a conversation with Himself and telling Himself to sit at His own right hand until His enemies are His footstool. That's nonsense. It's proof Jesus isn't YHWH.Psalm 110:1 is further proof Jesus is YHWH.
https://christcentered.community.fo...salm-24-1-and-deuteronomy-6-4.603/#post-24596
Titus 2:14 is in regards to the Great God (the Father) and savior Jesus appearing. When they appear, God brings Jesus and they appear together, not as a single person.
Psalm 110:1
God refers to the only mentioned God in the chapter. Jesus is the one who was sacrificed. God didn't die on a tree.The singular pronoun ("His") in Titus 2:14 refers to both the Father and to the Lord Jesus?
God refers to the only mentioned God in the chapter.
Daniel is essentially referring to what Micah did, but Micah clarifies that the one he is talking about isn't God. It's a man who's God is YHWH.Is the Lord Jesus the proper recipient of pelach in Daniel 7:14?
It isn't a straw man. I am helping you understand what Titus 2 is about since you came out with an error and said Jesus is God.Strawman.
I asked you about the singular use of "His".
Don't try dodging this.
Daniel is essentially referring to what Micah did,
It isn't a straw man. I am helping you understand what Titus 2 is about since you came out with an error and said Jesus is God.
?Great.
Now you can actually try answering the question from post 227.
?Now you can try answering the question from post 226.
You're sinking...fast.
?
I already answered it.
I didn't say that. Do not assign things to me I didn't say.You mentioned "God" and "Jesus" in your response.
Thanks for affirming the singular pronoun refers to both.
?
I answered this too.
The one who gave himself is Jesus, not God. You've really backed yourself into a corner here.
I didn't say that.
You need to know that the one who "gave himself" is Jesus so you can understand who the "he" is referring to. Yes we do belong to Jesus, but Jesus belongs to God.I didn't ask you who gave Himself refers to.
I asked you this:
To whom does "a people for His own possession" refer to in Titus 2:14?
