• **Notifications**: Notifications can be dismissed by clicking on the "x" on the righthand side of the notice.
  • **New Style**: You can now change style options. Click on the paintbrush at the bottom of this page.
  • **Donations**: If the Lord leads you please consider helping with monthly costs and up keep on our Forum. Click on the Donate link In the top menu bar. Thanks
  • **New Blog section**: There is now a blog section. Check it out near the Private Debates forum or click on the Blog link in the top menu bar.
  • Welcome Visitors! Join us and be blessed while fellowshipping and celebrating our Glorious Salvation In Christ Jesus.

Is Total Depravity a required belief?

I don't know if God has favorites among the elect. If He does I'm sure He favors you over me.
God favors PEOPLE in general (I would not have been so patient and sent rain and sunshine to EVERYONE), but God is wildly in LOVE with His BRIDE (That's YOU!).
 
Do Christians need to accept the Doctrine of Total Depravity?
Curious question.

If the question is intended to ask whether or not the answer is a requirement for salvation from sin and death then the answer is, "No," because Jesus, not belief is what saves. If the question is intended to ask whether or not the answer is a requirement for understanding the nature of that salvation that come solely by grace through faith in the work of the resurrected Jesus, then the answer is "Yes!"

It is, ultimately, necessary always to accept truth and not error so if the doctrine we now call "Total Depravity," is true and correct then, yes, Christians do need to accept TD because Christians need to accept the truth (and think, form doctrine, and act in accordance with truth. The debate over TD is one over its veracity, not whether any veracity necessitates acceptance. If Pelagians would be persuaded to the veracity of TD, presumably they would also subscribe to the necessity of acceptance. I single out Pelagians because classic Reformed Arminians accept the veracity of TD. Anyone denying TD is neither Calvinist or Arminian (Augustinian, Lutheran, or Reformed Wesleyan); they are humanist and Pelagian to one degree or another. Until the recent rise of what is now called Traditionalism, Pelagianism was recognized by orthodoxy as heretical, which is, by definition, the opposite of, the antithesis of truth. I believe it is important for those subscribing to the Pelagian view of salvation to accept theirs is the normative and statistical outlier. Appeals to the ECFs do not change either metric.

I did not know any of this when I was converted from death in sin to life in Christ and I doubt many are knowledgeable of the above when saved. I say that because knowledge does not save and we should be very clear about that because there are two threads or veins in Pelagian soteriology that often go neglected: 1) knowledge as a means of salvation and 2) volition/will/choice as a means of salvation. It is not worded that way but that is the essence, the presuppositional conditions upon which the belief sinfully dead and enslaved humans retain something of their faculties sufficient to choose God salvifically is based. If only a person hears and learns specific knowledge correctly, he can freely choose salvation from what remains of his/her God-given cognitive and volitional faculties. Salvation by knowledge is Gnostic and salvation by volition is Pelagian. So any Pelagian view arguing salvation is dependent on hearing and correctly learning specific knowledge is also Gnostic. It may not be completely Gnostic, but it is, in part, Gnostic. I add this because the answer to the question asked in the op cannot be confused or conflated with the motion acceptance of a doctrine is salvation by knowledge. Just saying.

I also believe accepting TD is often a matter of maturity and courage. A person can be saved simply because Jesus the anointed one of God is his or her Lord and Savior (he must be both). I profession of faith some degree of acknowledgement of one's need and one's sinfulness is in order, but I doubt any of us fully fathom the nature of sin, the degree of sinfulness we possess, and the incomparable holy righteousness of God, both Father and Son. As a Christian matures, he more frequently and more substantively comes in contact with both and learns more and more about himself as a sinner, himself as a saint, and God's incredible, extraordinary separateness - His utter sinlessness and whole rightness. I have difficulty writing the sentence thinking about it. It is common for Christians to say no one can stand before God apart from Christ because of our sin, but the larger truth is no one can do so because of God holiness, righteousness, and love. Any one of the three is on a magnitude so great (infinite) that we'd perish. Human flesh at ground zero of an atomic explosion would look simple to that of sinner before the unmitigated holiness of God. Eventual apprehension of that reality is sufficient to discard the Pelagian end of the spectrum in its entirety, but that is not what saves.
 
His clay said:
The critical issue is this. One may affirm the need for faith, but then "faith" is couched in terms of self-accomplishment.

Bob Carabbio said:
SO it's not "Faith" at all - just "religious rhetoric".

I think you misunderstood his post. @Bob Carabbio was agreeing with you, I think. He was describing that supposed 'faith' affirmed by the pretender that you also had described as false. —Not faith at all.

For once Bob was being agreeable —not irascible and mean. Give him a break! (Well, ok, yes, he was, as always, sarcastic.)
Giving the benefit of the doubt, I think that you are correct. Bob did adequately paraphrase the quoted statement.

My main quibble was that Bob's response was overly focused and did not represent the full scope of what I covered in post #72. At first glance, it appeared as though Bob summarized my nuanced post down to only the negative critique my post contained.

Again, assuming the benefit of the doubt, @Bob Carabbio I stand corrected. Yes, when a person describes faith in terms of self-accomplishment, rather than utter dependence upon Jesus, then the word "faith" is emptied of meaning and becomes merely "religious rhetoric."
 
Last edited:
Again, assuming the benefit of the doubt, @Bob Carabbio I stand corrected. Yes, when a person describes faith in terms of self-accomplishment, rather than utter dependence upon Jesus, then the word "faith" is emptied of meaning and becomes merely "religious rhetoric."
What do you think about Hope? Would you say that Hope is our utter dependence upon Jesus, as Faith is our utter Trust in Christ? As in "Faith, Hope and Love; but the greatest of these is Love". I'd like to pick your brain on this. I've spent my Christian life acting as if Faith is the greatest, even though I know what the Bible says. I think these three are in ascending order. So Hope is also greater than Faith...

And why is Grace not in this List of the Greatest?
 
Last edited:
Giving the benefit of the doubt, I think that you are correct. Bob did adequately paraphrase the quoted statement.

My main quibble was that Bob's response was overly focused and did not represent the full scope of what I covered in post #72. At first glance, it appeared as though Bob summarized my nuanced post down to only the negative critique my post contained.

Again, assuming the benefit of the doubt, @Bob Carabbio I stand corrected. Yes, when a person describes faith in terms of self-accomplishment, rather than utter dependence upon Jesus, then the word "faith" is emptied of meaning and becomes merely "religious rhetoric."
Are "I heard, then understood, then believed, and then professed," self-accomplishment?

  • I heard the gospel with my ears of flesh while still dead in sin absent the regenerative work of the Holy Spirit.
  • I understood the gospel with me brain of flesh while still dead in sin absent the regenerative work of the Holy Spirit.
  • I then believed the gospel with the cognitive faculties of flesh while still dead in sin absent the regenerative work of the Holy Spirit.
  • I then professed the gospel with my mouth of flesh while still dead in sin absent the regenerative work of the Holy Spirit.

Is the above self-accomplishment? Although I have quoted @His clay, I'd be interested in @makesends' and @Bob Carabbio's answer to that question, too.






For the record: I read Post 72 with some agreement but wondered why it resorted to euphemisms when clarity was warranted (nuke?). I then read Post 73 to be a meaningless rant without much substance other than mere protest or dissent. Using the words @Bob Carabbio used, your comment he quoted would read, "The critical issue is this. One may affirm the need for [religious rhetoric], but then "[religious rhetoric]" is couched in terms of self-accomplishment," and I am guessing that it not what either of you intended.
.
 
What do you think about Hope? Would you say that Hope is our utter dependence upon Jesus, as Faith is our utter Trust in Christ? As in "Faith, Hope and Love; but the greatest of these is Love". I'd like to pick your brain on this. I've spent my Christian life acting as if Faith is the greatest, even though I know what the Bible says. I think these three are in ascending order. So Hope is also greater than Faith...
Hmm.... :unsure:

What hope (of the hopes mentioned in the NT, which of them) would exist apart from love and faith? Since we loved because he first loved us, how can there be any hope apart from love? Since faith is the assurance of things hoped for, what faith could be had absent the hope? We know love is the greatest of the three because Paul explicitly states it is the greatest. The monergistic position is that grace and faith are both gifts, not one or the other. Ephesians 2:8 s read as a single clause that is the gift. Salvation-by-grace-through-faith is the gift, not gifts (singular, not plural; conjunction, not option). Everything we are given for, to, by, at, with salvation are gifts but it is all predicated first, foremost, and solely on God loving us because God hated Esau but not Jacob. He loved Jacob, and that love was said to be a mercy dependent solely on God's will and purpose and not how either man willed or worked. Are we not to say it was because of that love, the mercy, the God-will, the God-purpose that Jacob believed salvifically? Esau believed in God. Upon their reconciliation he acknowledged God's blessings (probably acutely aware he'd disingenuously once long-prior given it up for a bowl of soup. He had, by then, seen the inheritance realized, at least in its earthly form - even if it was no longer his. The intellectual assent was insufficient.

  • I can't have faith apart from God's love, which is dependent solely on His will and purpose and nothing of myself.
  • What faith I possess is a gift of God's and nothing of myself.
  • That faith that was gifted to me by God is the assurance of the things for which I hope (all of which are also gifts).
  • Christ is the hope.

1 Timothy 1:1
Paul, an apostle of Christ Jesus according to the commandment of God our Savior, and of Christ Jesus, who is our hope....

I am inclined to say the three are inseparable (beware of false trichotomies ;)) but that does not preclude an ordinal relationship 🫡.

  • Love is causal (?)
  • Faith/assurance the vehicle (?)
  • Hope the object or objective (?)

I could not have obtained Y had I not had X (?) I could not have been successful had I not believed in myself? I could not have grown such excellent vegetables had I not had great fertilizer (or sufficient rain, or worked the soil so well). (?)

1 Peter 1:3-5
Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who according to His great mercy has caused us to be born again to a living hope through the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead, to obtain an inheritance which is imperishable and undefiled and will not fade away, reserved in heaven for you, who are protected by the power of God through faith for a salvation ready to be revealed in the last time.


(🤯 josh's head explodes recalling other verses about hope)

1 Peter 1:13
Therefore, prepare your minds for action, keep sober in spirit, fix your hope completely on the grace to be brought to you at the revelation of Jesus Christ.

What? There's more grace coming? More grace to be brought to me than what has already been gifted?

Hebrews 6:19-20
This hope we have as an anchor of the soul, a hope both sure and steadfast and one which enters within the veil, where Jesus has entered as a forerunner for us, having become a high priest forever according to the order of Melchizedek.

Anchors, and the ability to have assurance they work, are pretty important.
..........So Hope is also greater than Faith...
Man 😒! Why you gotta be like that? Now, I gotta go read my Bible again.
And why is Grace not in this List of the Greatest?
That's an easy one: the list is not exhaustive ;). Since they are all gifts, there's probably all kinds of things on that list :cool: but Paull had only so much scroll 😁.
 
What do you think about Hope? Would you say that Hope is our utter dependence upon Jesus, as Faith is our utter Trust in Christ? As in "Faith, Hope and Love; but the greatest of these is Love". I'd like to pick your brain on this. I've spent my Christian life acting as if Faith is the greatest, even though I know what the Bible says. I think these three are in ascending order. So Hope is also greater than Faith...

And why is Grace not in this List of the Greatest?
It's the difference between monergism and synergism, to overstate it. Faith and hope are worked in our nature by the Spirit of God. Grace is how he does it.
 
Are "I heard, then understood, then believed, and then professed," self-accomplishment?

  • I heard the gospel with my ears of flesh while still dead in sin absent the regenerative work of the Holy Spirit.
  • I understood the gospel with me brain of flesh while still dead in sin absent the regenerative work of the Holy Spirit.
  • I then believed the gospel with the cognitive faculties of flesh while still dead in sin absent the regenerative work of the Holy Spirit.
  • I then professed the gospel with my mouth of flesh while still dead in sin absent the regenerative work of the Holy Spirit.

Is the above self-accomplishment? Although I have quoted @His clay, I'd be interested in @makesends' and @Bob Carabbio's answer to that question, too.






For the record: I read Post 72 with some agreement but wondered why it resorted to euphemisms when clarity was warranted (nuke?). I then read Post 73 to be a meaningless rant without much substance other than mere protest or dissent. Using the words @Bob Carabbio used, your comment he quoted would read, "The critical issue is this. One may affirm the need for [religious rhetoric], but then "[religious rhetoric]" is couched in terms of self-accomplishment," and I am guessing that it not what either of you intended.
.
All four of the bullet points satirized are false as they can be. The first could be debated by arguing what is meant by "heard the gospel", but the rest can't be supported at all.
 
Faith and hope are worked in our nature by the Spirit of God.
Clarify that for me.

My Bible tells me the nature of the natural man is such that he does nt fathom the things of the Spirit; he considers them foolish and cannot understand them because spiritually they are discerned (1 Cor. 2:14). Paul and Barnabas once declared their nature was the same as them people in Lystra (Acts 14:15), but he was mostly likely referencing their all being sinners (Gal. 2:15) and children of wrath (Eph. 2:3), because both he and Peter spoke of the Divine nature within them.

2 Peter 1:1-4
Simon Peter, a bond-servant and apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who have received a faith of the same kind as ours, by the righteousness of our God and Savior, Jesus Christ: Grace and peace be multiplied to you in the knowledge of God and of Jesus our Lord; seeing that His divine power has granted to us everything pertaining to life and godliness, through the true knowledge of Him who called us by His own glory and excellence. For by these He has granted to us His precious and magnificent promises, so that by them you may become partakers of the divine nature, having escaped the corruption that is in the world by lust.

His readers had received the same kind of faith as the apostles and received it by the righteousness of God through the grant of divine power.
 
Are "I heard, then understood, then believed, and then professed," self-accomplishment?

  • I heard the gospel with my ears of flesh while still dead in sin absent the regenerative work of the Holy Spirit.
  • I understood the gospel with me brain of flesh while still dead in sin absent the regenerative work of the Holy Spirit.
  • I then believed the gospel with the cognitive faculties of flesh while still dead in sin absent the regenerative work of the Holy Spirit.
  • I then professed the gospel with my mouth of flesh while still dead in sin absent the regenerative work of the Holy Spirit.

Is the above self-accomplishment? Although I have quoted @His clay, I'd be interested in @makesends' and @Bob Carabbio's answer to that question, too.






For the record: I read Post 72 with some agreement but wondered why it resorted to euphemisms when clarity was warranted (nuke?). I then read Post 73 to be a meaningless rant without much substance other than mere protest or dissent. Using the words @Bob Carabbio used, your comment he quoted would read, "The critical issue is this. One may affirm the need for [religious rhetoric], but then "[religious rhetoric]" is couched in terms of self-accomplishment," and I am guessing that it not what either of you intended.
.
My bad. I didn't see your question right. I answered and time has passed so I can't edit. Yes, those are self-deterministic, self-accomplishment style, presumptuous statements.
 
What do you think about Hope? Would you say that Hope is our utter dependence upon Jesus, as Faith is our utter Trust in Christ? As in "Faith, Hope and Love; but the greatest of these is Love". I'd like to pick your brain on this. I've spent my Christian life acting as if Faith is the greatest, even though I know what the Bible says. I think these three are in ascending order. So Hope is also greater than Faith...

And why is Grace not in this List of the Greatest?
I know you are not asking me, but I gave it some thought and now will pick your brain.

Is it maybe because Paul is giving instructions to a body of Christians on many different areas where they were not behaving properly as the children of God? So the statement would be directed at interaction among the saints. And if there is no love, there is no faith and if there is no faith there is no hope. So that love is the greatest is not saying it is superior to faith and hope but it is necessary for faith and hope.
 
Are "I heard, then understood, then believed, and then professed," self-accomplishment?

  • I heard the gospel with my ears of flesh while still dead in sin absent the regenerative work of the Holy Spirit.
  • I understood the gospel with me brain of flesh while still dead in sin absent the regenerative work of the Holy Spirit.
  • I then believed the gospel with the cognitive faculties of flesh while still dead in sin absent the regenerative work of the Holy Spirit.
  • I then professed the gospel with my mouth of flesh while still dead in sin absent the regenerative work of the Holy Spirit.

Is the above self-accomplishment? Although I have quoted @His clay, I'd be interested in @makesends' and @Bob Carabbio's answer to that question, too.






For the record: I read Post 72 with some agreement but wondered why it resorted to euphemisms when clarity was warranted (nuke?). I then read Post 73 to be a meaningless rant without much substance other than mere protest or dissent. Using the words @Bob Carabbio used, your comment he quoted would read, "The critical issue is this. One may affirm the need for [religious rhetoric], but then "[religious rhetoric]" is couched in terms of self-accomplishment," and I am guessing that it not what either of you intended.
.
Your question reminds me of the importance of taking my prior post as a whole. So while I think that @Bob Carabbio adequately summarized one small aspect of my post, the poster failed to adequately deal with the larger context and explaining I provided. The unfortunate ramification is that people get a massively truncated and inadequate view of what I wrote by reading Bob's paraphrase. I will now take the time to quote my own post.
I've read a few responses, and the majority seem to answer with a no.

I'm going to answer with a yes, but then I need to qualify it.
The doctrine of total depravity is a doctrine held by both Calvinists and Classical Arminians. There is an important reason why it is critical, and this takes me back to the controversy between Luther and Erasmus. If memory serves, Luther congratulated Erasmus on locating the critical point of conflict. And it revolves around the self-sufficiency of the will vs the bondage of the will (as Luther put it). The doctrine of total depravity gets to the very heart of the issue, which is this. For true salvation to occur, and for one to have genuine, empty-handed faith, self-sufficiency must be destroyed, and the doctrine of depravity is the nuke.

The critical issue is this. One may affirm the need for faith, but then "faith" is couched in terms of self-accomplishment. Another may affirm the need for faith, but then "faith" is couched in terms of utter self ruin, and thusly faith is completely in Christ and His work and merit with no divided allegiance. The eternal danger is that one may use religious language, Christian language, but in the end their "faith" is a self-salvation because of the inherent self-sufficient nature of the will they describe. Equivocation here (over the very meaning and essence of "faith") may be eternally damning. All of this connects to the doctrine of depravity and its connection to the will.
As we can see, my main focus was upon the will, a self-sufficient understanding of the will (i.e. libertarian freedom), and the resulting context this provides toward human action. This self-sufficient context means everything with respect to answering Josheb's question.

I'm not trying to be patronizing to you, but I'll explain the equivocation issue in a bit more detail. As you well know, words can sometimes be used in a way that indicates a significant shift in meaning. For example, often libertarian free will advocates conflate the secret will of God with the prescriptive will of God, and they say that since God ordained sin then it must be God's will (i.e. what He wants us to do prescriptively). This simple slip in meaning causes no end of straw men and misconception regarding real positions. It is this shift in meaning that can be dangerous and highly problematic, for with the same two words "God's will" one can communication two very different things.

The same can be said of faith, or believing, or trusting, or nearly every single humanly required activity for salvation to occur. This applies directly to your question, and the answer to your question falls into the explaining I offered previously. "One may affirm the need for faith, but then "faith" is couched in terms of self-accomplishment. Another may affirm the need for faith, but then "faith" is couched in terms of utter self ruin, and thusly faith is completely in Christ and His work and merit with no divided allegiance." Notice how a different context surrounds the use of the term "faith" resulting in two meanings (hence the equivocation discussion).

The term "nuke" is symbolic for destruction. This is the connection to the opening post. The doctrine of total depravity provides the necessary "nuke" or "destruction" upon human ability and self-sufficiency. And adequately knowing the problem helps one better see the cure. As I stated previously, Classical Arminians and Calvinists are in complete agreement on the importance of the doctrine of depravity. Arminius himself has been quoted many times by Calvinists to point to the bondage of the will.

Getting back to my post, one's understanding of the will causes different meanings (hence the reference back to Luther and Erasmus) to be given to the term "faith." Why? (1) In a more compatibilistic understanding, the will is in bondage, internal wickedness is apparent and clear, and the devastation this nuke leaves the person without hope in himself; thus, "faith" is empty handed and entirely focused upon Christ. By way of contrast, (2) in a more libertarian understanding, the will is not in bondage, it is self-sufficient to accomplish (ability to do otherwise, and ultimate causal source found in the agent). Internal depravity (the corruption of human nature) is minimized or ignored, and the catastrophic effect of this is that self-sufficiency is not destroyed, but rather fostered and nurtured. This leads to a potential equivocation of the very meaning of "faith."

Hence, my response to your question is this. It entirely depends upon the context applied to the meaning of the terms you use in your question and subsequent statements. The beginning of each statement starts with "I". Is this an "I" that ultimately is the cause of one's faith; an "I" that is ultimately the determiner of salvation; an "I" that self-sufficiently accomplishes these acts? Or is this an "I" that is dependently acting, where faith is focused, not on human ability, but upon God and His sufficiency? These radically different contexts provide different answers to your question because the context radically alters the very meaning of the terms used. A difference in worldview causes different meanings. As one book put it, ideas have consequences. The answer is "yes" and "no" depending on the context couching the terms used.

I have taken what I think are extreme measures to explain. It is not my aim to be patronizing, especially to Josheb, but I'm trying to make things as crystal clear as possible. This is obviously a matter of eternal importance, for whether or not a person is saved is directly impacted by the ramifications of this discussion.
 
Last edited:
I have taken what I think are extreme measures to explain. It is not my aim to be patronizing, especially to Josheb, but I'm trying to make things as crystal clear as possible. This is obviously a matter of eternal importance, for whether or not a person is saved is directly impacted by the ramifications of this discussion.
Then, you DO mean to be patronizing, at least in part, to me? HAHA!

OT, I know, but I couldn't help myself: Reading this, it just occurred to me how the self-determinists go out of their way to misread 1 Timothy 4:10, "...the living God, who is the Savior of all people, and especially of those who believe." Even our modern English still speaks that way, at times, which points at a denial of their use of the reference.
 
What do you think about Hope? Would you say that Hope is our utter dependence upon Jesus, as Faith is our utter Trust in Christ? As in "Faith, Hope and Love; but the greatest of these is Love". I'd like to pick your brain on this. I've spent my Christian life acting as if Faith is the greatest, even though I know what the Bible says. I think these three are in ascending order. So Hope is also greater than Faith...

And why is Grace not in this List of the Greatest?
I tend to agree with much of what Ariel wrote in post #91. Without grabbing my books, my general impression has typically been "faith" is more focused upon the past and present, and "hope" is more future oriented.

Grace typically has reference to God's dealings with sinful men: unmerited favor toward them. Why not in the list of the greatest? My first thought is that it would be a conflation of categories: God and sinful men. Again, grace is normally with respect toward God's salvific actions upon sinful men. Hence, at first glance, it would seem to be a category error to assign to people a disposition typically described of God. So let me toss the question back at you. Is there a particular verse or passage that ascribes "grace" as a subjective description of Christians? With a clearer focus upon God's word, then the question would be more grounded. And that is my second concern, Paul's inspired statement is "faith, hope, and love;" we and our questions are not in the realm of inspired authors. Hence, we take the three, submissively, because ultimately Paul in that statement is the mouthpiece for God; and God is my highest standard of authority, reality, and rationality.
 
.......................I'm not trying to be patronizing to you, but I'll explain the equivocation issue in a bit more detail. As you well know, words can sometimes be used in a way that indicates a significant shift in meaning. For example, often libertarian free will advocates conflate the secret will of God with the prescriptive will of God, and they say that since God ordained sin then it must be God's will (i.e. what He wants us to do prescriptively). This simple slip in meaning causes no end of straw men and misconception regarding real positions. It is this shift in meaning that can be dangerous and highly problematic, for with the same two words "God's will" one can communication two very different things.

The same can be said of faith, or believing, or trusting, or nearly every single humanly required activity for salvation to occur. This applies directly to your question, and the answer to your question falls into the explaining I offered previously. "One may affirm the need for faith, but then "faith" is couched in terms of self-accomplishment. Another may affirm the need for faith, but then "faith" is couched in terms of utter self ruin, and thusly faith is completely in Christ and His work and merit with no divided allegiance." Notice how a different context surrounds the use of the term "faith" resulting in two meanings (hence the equivocation discussion).

The term "nuke" is symbolic for destruction. This is the connection to the opening post. The doctrine of total depravity provides the necessary "nuke" or "destruction" upon human ability and self-sufficiency. And adequately knowing the problem helps one better see the cure. As I stated previously, Classical Arminians and Calvinists are in complete agreement on the importance of the doctrine of depravity. Arminius himself has been quoted many times by Calvinists to point to the bondage of the will.
Yep.
 
.
Getting back to my post, one's understanding of the will causes different meanings (hence the reference back to Luther and Erasmus) to be given to the term "faith." Why? (1) In a more compatibilistic understanding, the will is in bondage, internal wickedness is apparent and clear, and the devastation this nuke leaves the person without hope in himself; thus, "faith" is empty handed and entirely focused upon Christ. By way of contrast, (2) in a more libertarian understanding, the will is not in bondage, it is self-sufficient to accomplish (ability to do otherwise, and ultimate causal source found in the agent). Internal depravity (the corruption of human nature) is minimized or ignored, and the catastrophic effect of this is that self-sufficiency is not destroyed, but rather fostered and nurtured. This leads to a potential equivocation of the very meaning of "faith."

Hence, my response to your question is this. It entirely depends upon the context applied to the meaning of the terms you use in your question and subsequent statements. The beginning of each statement starts with "I". Is this an "I" that ultimately is the cause of one's faith; an "I" that is ultimately the determiner of salvation; an "I" that self-sufficiently accomplishes these acts? Or is this an "I" that is dependently acting, where faith is focused, not on human ability, but upon God and His sufficiency? These radically different contexts provide different answers to your question because the context radically alters the very meaning of the terms used. A difference in worldview causes different meanings. As one book put it, ideas have consequences. The answer is "yes" and "no" depending on the context couching the terms used.
One point of clarification or amendment is warranted because this "I" of which you post is only, always, and everywhere the unregenerate, fleshly, sinfully dead and enslaved I and never the regenerate and Spirit indwelt, inspired, and empowered I. That difference is the focal crux of the soteriological debate on TD. I would venture to add, ontologically speaking, nonbelievers and never believers. This is axiomatic.

I also consider the volitional agency argument a red herring because there isn't a single place in the entire Bible where scripture explicitly states the unregenerate fleshly will of the sinfully dead and enslaved nonbeliever is in any way causal to salvation and that silence stands in stark comparison to a plethora of texts explicitly assigning causality to God and God alone. In the absence of scripture assigning soteriological causal agency how then can someone even remotely suggest the aforementioned sinful I has such faculty?

Of course, the volitional agency soteriology has always come with a hypocritical paradox because they premise "God regenerated me because I believed," is invariably accompanied with a denial of the human will causing salvation.
I have taken what I think are extreme measures to explain. It is not my aim to be patronizing, especially to Josheb, but I'm trying to make things as crystal clear as possible.
I didn't take any of it in any untoward manner.
This is obviously a matter of eternal importance, for whether or not a person is saved is directly impacted by the ramifications of this discussion.
Yes, but the op is specifically and solely about the necessity of TD. In addition to my op-reply, I'll add the fact that most of us monergists here were previously synergists and likely Pelagian to some degree so, no, knowing and understanding the doctrine of Total Depravity isn't required to be saved. It is a fact of our salvation, but many have no clue that is the case when saved. We learn and understand it by the grace, word, work and Spirit of God.

.
 
I tend to agree with much of what Ariel wrote in post #91. Without grabbing my books, my general impression has typically been "faith" is more focused upon the past and present, and "hope" is more future oriented.

Grace typically has reference to God's dealings with sinful men: unmerited favor toward them. Why not in the list of the greatest? My first thought is that it would be a conflation of categories: God and sinful men. Again, grace is normally with respect toward God's salvific actions upon sinful men. Hence, at first glance, it would seem to be a category error to assign to people a disposition typically described of God. So let me toss the question back at you. Is there a particular verse or passage that ascribes "grace" as a subjective description of Christians? With a clearer focus upon God's word, then the question would be more grounded. And that is my second concern, Paul's inspired statement is "faith, hope, and love;" we and our questions are not in the realm of inspired authors. Hence, we take the three, submissively, because ultimately Paul in that statement is the mouthpiece for God; and God is my highest standard of authority, reality, and rationality.
I agree; we think alike...

I think there is something to the Crescendo of greatness in the List though. Jesus said, 'If you've done this to the Least, you've done it to Me". Faith is Now and Then, Hope is Now and Then; Love is Now and Then, and Always. I 'Faith' Now and Then, and I 'Hope' Now and Then. Since I'm a 5-Point Calvinist, when I say I 'Faith' Now, I'm not discounting God's Sovereignty. We say Faith is the Gift of God; is Hope the Gift of God too?
 
Last edited:
.......is Hope the Gift of God too?
It would appear so.

2 Thessalonians 2:16
Now may our Lord Jesus Christ himself and God our Father, who has loved us and given us eternal comfort and good hope by grace...

Eternal comfort and good hope are given by grace.
 
It would appear so.

2 Thessalonians 2:16
Now may our Lord Jesus Christ himself and God our Father, who has loved us and given us eternal comfort and good hope by grace...

Eternal comfort and good hope are given by grace.
That solves it, I needed that; very good...

Now; if we can just get the other side to listen to Reason as easily...
 
Last edited:
Do Christians need to accept the Doctrine of Total Depravity?
Does a nonbeliever need to accept the Doctrine of Total Depravity to be saved? [make it interesting] By extension, do they need to accept TULIP or the doctrines of grace before they can be saved? By extension, if not, do they have to accept/believe these things in order to keep their salvation?
 
Back
Top