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Yahweh 301,302 or Trinity 301,302

Grieving the HS is blaspheming God the Father.
Matthew 12: 31 And so I tell you, every kind of sin and slander can be forgiven, but blasphemy against the Spirit will not be forgiven. 32 Anyone who speaks a word against the Son of Man will be forgiven, but anyone who speaks against the Holy Spirit will not be forgiven, either in this age or in the age to come.

Here the Father, who forgives us for the Son's sake, will not forgive those who speak against the Holy Spirit. And, the Father and the Son are one.

John 10: 30 "I and the Father are one.” 31 Again his Jewish opponents picked up stones to stone him, 32 but Jesus said to them, “I have shown you many good works from the Father. For which of these do you stone me?” 33 “We are not stoning you for any good work,” they replied, “but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God.”
 
Where in the context does "Lord" refer to the Father?
The Father being the Lord is all over the Bible. You've seen them because I know I showed you. I don't expect different results this time around. You either believe it or you don't.
 
The Bible distinguishes between God the Father is LORD and all capital.

Jesus is our Lord. Only L is capital.
True and also when they capitalized LORD like that, it always translates to YHWH in the Old Testament in over 6,000 cases. For example, Psalm 110:1 clearly shows the LORD and the Lord are not the same person. Elsewhere, the LORD said He is the only God and there are no others. That means Jesus isn't God.

Isaiah 45
5I am the LORD,[YHWH] and there is no other;
there is no God but Me.

I will equip you for battle,
though you have not known Me,

Psalm 110
1The LORD[YHWH] said to my Lord:[Jesus]
“Sit at My right hand
until I make Your enemies
a footstool for Your feet.”
 
Provide an example where I ignored the context where "Lord" is used.
Every time you imply Jesus is God, you are disregarding the context of Jesus' word.
 
Provide an example where I ignored the context where "Lord" is used.
Acts 1:24 where you repeatedly and incorrectly said they prayed to Lord Jesus.
 
Already been addressed. 1 John 1:1,2 says the logos is an it. What’s your workaround for what John 1:1 says in most versions?
1 Jn 1:1 refers to "the life," for which the correct pronoun is "it," just as the correct pronoun for "divine life" is "it."
 
1 Jn 1:1 refers to "the life," for which the correct pronoun is "it," just as the correct pronoun for "divine life" is "it."
You would intentionally botch the grammar of 1 John 1:1,2, but let me help you. The "word of life" is an it. The logos is an it.

Grammatically speaking, the antecedent of a pronoun is the word, phrase, or clause that the pronoun refers to. In 1 John 1:1,2:
  1. "This is the Word of life" establishes the initial reference to the "Word of life."
  2. The subsequent use of "it" refers back to the previously mentioned "Word of life" as its antecedent.
 
You are lying. Your god is triune.

You are lying. One Triune God.

Get a clue.

Say "hello" to my Ignore button.

bye
👋
 
1 Jn 1:1 refers to "the life," for which the correct pronoun is "it," just as the correct pronoun for "divine life" is "it."
Ha! I foresaw what his response would be to this, and I was right! (How divine of me, haha).

I've got a feeling you got sneaky here and only led him so far, and not further, so he would step in his own, er, mud.

I was thinking at first that you should have mentioned, "I am the way, the truth, and the life", and note the genders there. But this conversation is growing more ridiculous by the post. But it is hard for an unbeliever to 'admit' who the Christ is, and what the Gospel is, and even harder to understand it.
 
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