Yahweh 301,302 or Trinity 301,302

[Eleanor]

That's about you. I believe everything the Bible says.

Except Jn 1:1, 14:

"The Word was with God, and the Word was God. . .the Word became flesh and dwelled among us."

 

[Mr GLee]

1 Samuel 16:7
But the LORD said to Samuel, Do not look at his appearance or at the height of his stature, because I have rejected him; for God sees not as man sees, for man looks at the outward appearance, but the LORD looks at the heart.

Since Jesus fully knows the hearts of all people proves Jesus sees as God sees (Acts 1:24; 1 Corinthians 4:5; Revelation 2:23).

Jesus the Son of man sees as the Father gives him his understanding (not seen) . . the understanding of faith , Christ in us our living hope

The Son man is given ears to hear and eyes to see the hidden things of God, hidden in parable>They teach us how to understand or walk by faith the unseen things of God He sees as the Father reveals it to the flesh

Only the Father knows the day and the hour Only the father not seen can see into the hearts of mankind a feed them food in the proper time

Satan took advantage of that kind of confusion of Peter.

Mathew 16:15 He saith unto them, But whom say ye that I am? And Simon Peter answered and said, Thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God. And Jesus answered and said unto him, Blessed art thou, Simon Barjona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto thee, but my Father which is in heaven.

The faithless flesh profits for nothing. zero His words are spirit and spirit life giving.

 

[Fred]

Only the father not seen can see into the hearts of mankind

Since the Lord in Acts 1:24 refers to the Lord Jesus (which you affirmed) then what applies "only" to the Father encompasses the Lord Jesus in that He (the Lord Jesus) fully knows the hearts of all people.

 

[Mr GLee]

Since the Lord in Acts 1:24 refers to the Lord Jesus (which you affirmed) then what applies "only" to the Father encompasses the Lord Jesus in that He (the Lord Jesus) fully knows the hearts of all people.

I would offer. Two kinds of lords .Earthly dying mankind and heavenly. Lord of earthen lords .King of earthly kIngs

 

[Fred]

I would offer. Two kinds of lords .Earthly dying mankind and heavenly. Lord of earthen lords .King of earthly kIngs

Isn't Jesus referred to as "Lord of lords" while He is in heaven?

 

[Runningman]

Intellectually lazy agan. . .

The word in the Greek is not "sovereign, it is "Master" (didaskalos) and is used by Christ of himself (Mt 23:8, Jn 13:13-14).

The Bible does not state "God is sovereign."
Please present a verse where the word "sovereign" is used.

God is the Sovereign Lord of heaven and Earth as Acts 4:24 says. In this same passage, Jesus is referred to as His servant (Acts 4:27,30). A servant is not greater than his master as Jesus rightly stated in John 13:16. This means that within this context, the proper translation of the God being referred to is the Sovereign Lord because any lord is inherently sovereign within particular contexts. Since God is the creator, He's the Sovereign Lord of heaven and Earth as Peter and John point out.

Since you seem to like playing semantics, the Bible does indeed prove the sovereignty of God.

Ephesians 1​

11In Him we were also chosen as God’s own, having been predestined according to the plan of Him who works out everything by the counsel of His will,​

​

Romans 8​

28And we know that God works all things together for the good of those who love Him, who are called according to His purpose.​

Important question... why do you seem to contest the sovereignty of God? Is it because you actually deny God? I cannot help of think of this verse in regards what you're saying.

2 Tim 3​

5having a form of godliness but denying its power. Turn away from such as these!​

 

[Runningman]

Except Jn 1:1, 14:

"The Word was with God, and the Word was God. . .the Word became flesh and dwelled among us."

Only one God known as the Father. Deal with it.

John 17
3Now this is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom You have sent

Ephesians 4
6one God and Father of all, who is over all and through all and in all.

1 Corinthians 8
6yet for us there is but one God, the Father...

 

[Fred]

1 Corinthians 8
6yet for us there is but one God, the Father...

Does "one Lord," in reference to Jesus, exclude the Father from being Lord?

 

[Eleanor]

God is the Sovereign Lord of heaven and Earth as Acts 4:24 says. In this same passage, Jesus is referred to as His servant (Acts 4:27,30). A servant is not greater than his master as Jesus rightly stated in John 13:16. This means that within this context, the proper translation of the God being referred to is the Sovereign Lord because any lord is inherently sovereign within particular contexts. Since God is the creator, He's the Sovereign Lord of heaven and Earth as Peter and John point out.

Since you seem to like playing semantics, the Bible does indeed prove the sovereignty of God.

Ephesians 1​

11In Him we were also chosen as God’s own, having been predestined according to the plan of Him who works out everything by the counsel of His will,​

​

Romans 8​

28And we know that God works all things together for the good of those who love Him, who are called according to His purpose.​

Important question... why do you seem to contest the sovereignty of God? Is it because you actually deny God? I cannot help of think of this verse in regards what you're saying.

2 Tim 3​

5having a form of godliness but denying its power. Turn away from such as these!​

Previously addressed. . .to wit:

And yet Scripture does not state "God is sovereign" just as it does not state "God is Trinity."

 

[Eleanor]

Only one God known as the Father. Deal with it.

Agreed. . .one God in three distinct divine persons, Father, Son and Holy Spirit, the (singular) name of the one God (Mt 28:19).

"The Word was with God, and the Word was God. . .the Word became flesh and dwelled among us." (Jn 1:1, 14)

And the Holy Spirit who regenerates to eternal (God's) life (Jn 3:3-8).

John 17
3Now this is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom You have sent
Ephesians 4
6one God and Father of all, who is over all and through all and in all.
1 Corinthians 8
6yet for us there is but one God, the Father...

Agreed. . .one God in three distinct divine persons.

 

[Runningman]

Agreed. . .one God in three distinct divine persons, Father, Son and Holy Spirit, the (singular) name of the one God (Mt 28:19).

"The Word was with God, and the Word was God. . .the Word became flesh and dwelled among us." (Jn 1:1, 14)

And the Holy Spirit who regenerates to eternal (God's) life (Jn 3:3-8).

Agreed. . .one God in three distinct divine persons.

“One God in three distinct divine persons” is your interpretation not explicit in the text. let’s try this angle then. What did Jesus do or say that proved he is God? This should be easy right?

 

[Eleanor]

“One God in three distinct divine persons” is your interpretation not explicit in the text. let’s try this angle then. What did Jesus do or say that proved he is God? This should be easy right?

Don't need another "angle," the NT gospel is sufficient in:

"The Word was with God, and the Word was God. . .the Word became flesh and dwelled among us." (Jn 1:1, 14)

And the Holy Spirit who sovereignly regenerates to eternal (God's) life (Jn 3:3-8) can only do so if he is likewise God.

 

[Eleanor]

 

[Runningman]

Don't need another "angle," the NT gospel is sufficient in:

"The Word was with God, and the Word was God. . .the Word became flesh and dwelled among us." (Jn 1:1, 14)

And the Holy Spirit who sovereignly regenerates to eternal (God's) life (Jn 3:3-8) can only do so if he is likewise God.

Already been addressed. 1 John 1:1,2 says the logos is an it. What’s your workaround for what John 1:1 says in most versions?

 

[Runningman]

Does "one Lord," in reference to Jesus, exclude the Father from being Lord?

No it does not. They are both a lord in their own respective sense. Jesus is Lord of the Church and God is the aloes of all. Didn’t we talk about this in one of your threads and when I kept showing you scripture you just kept telling me I am dodging?

 

[grace2]

No it does not. They are both a lord in their own respective sense. Jesus is Lord of the Church and God is the aloes of all. Didn’t we talk about this in one of your threads and when I kept showing you scripture you just kept telling me I am dodging?

The Bible distinguishes between God the Father is LORD and all capital.

Jesus is our Lord. Only L is capital.

 

[Fred]

No it does not. They are both a lord in their own respective sense.

Where in the context does "Lord" refer to the Father?

 

[makesends]

Intellectually lazy agan. . .

The word in the Greek is not "sovereign, it is "Master" (didaskalos) and is used by Christ of himself (Mt 23:8, Jn 13:13-14).

The Bible does not state "God is sovereign."
Please present a verse where the word "sovereign" is used.

—i.e. where the word, "sovereign", is used by God concerning himself. The example you were given, even if 'sovereign' were the right word, is of others saying it —not God saying it about himself. Your point stands either way.

 

[makesends]

Don't need another "angle," the NT gospel is sufficient in:

"The Word was with God, and the Word was God. . .the Word became flesh and dwelled among us." (Jn 1:1, 14)

And the Holy Spirit who sovereignly regenerates to eternal (God's) life (Jn 3:3-8) can only do so if he is likewise God.

Not to mention that the Holy Spirit can be grieved, can be ignored, can speak, can dwell —all things of a willed person— and that blaspheming him is worse than even blaspheming the Father or the Son!

 

[grace2]

Not to mention that the Holy Spirit can be grieved, can be ignored, can speak, can dwell —all things of a willed person— and that blaspheming him is worse than even blaspheming the Father or the Son!

Grieving the HS is blaspheming God the Father.