The church in Galatia that Paul was writing to was a mix of Jewish Christians and Gentile Christians.
Since the New Covenant is with the House of Israel and the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob; and since Jesus came ONLY to the lost sheep of the House of Israel; and since the New Covenant Church was founded by Jews on the day of the Jewish Feast of Harvests; and since the Holy Spirit came and indwelt Jews at the beginning; and while Israel's Temple stood, the "ism" of Judaism remained and everything that happened to the people of Israel was mainly a Jewish phenomenon, and since God was fulfilling His Covenant with the children and House of Israel, every church founded by Jewish Christians was populated by Jews. Even by the time of Saul/Paul's letter to the Galatian region he was writing to Jewish Christians and that would be around the year A.D. 54, some 20 years after Pentecost. When a Gentile would convert to Judaism they would be circumcised, make a solemn promise, and for all intents and purposes become a Jew and observe ALL Jewish Law and ordinances. And when the New Covenant God made with the House of Israel was ushered in it is reasonable that any - and I mean - any Gentile that
may have become saved and filled with the Holy Spirit, they did not long remain uncircumcised but in order to come into a Jewish Christian's home or homes had to be circumcised and converted to Judaism.
Even after the Jerusalem Council of A.D. 50 what did these Jewish Christians do? They forego circumcision but still laid no greater BURDEN (of the Law) than to:
19 Wherefore my sentence is, that we trouble not them, which from among the Gentiles are turned to God:
20 But that we write unto them, that they
abstain from pollutions of idols, and
from fornication, and
from things strangled, and
from blood.
21 For Moses of old time hath in every city them that preach him, being read in the synagogues every sabbath day.
Acts 15:19–21.
Gentiles would not have to be circumcised but would still be considered part of the Mosaic Covenant-Lite, or 2.0.
For the first several decades while God established the New Covenant with the House of Israel the Jewish Church until the destruction of the Israeli Temple populated and dominated their home churches and until they understood the middle wall partition was removed still treated Gentiles - and only a few - as Gentile and would not let them into their homes for fellowship.
I agree that the pronouns above (we/us/our) are referring to Jews.
But I disagree here. The pronoun change (to you/ye) is meaningful and highlights the change from the Jews to the Church (a mix of Jewish Christians and Gentile Christians).
You make it sound as though it was 50/50 Jews and Gentiles in the early Jewish home churches, and it was not like that. If anything in a fellowship of twenty there were maybe two Gentiles. A very small minority. Very small. Extremely small. Miniscule. Tiny. A very small fraction.
It was AFTER the destruction of the Temple and several years after that when things began to quiet down from the warring years that the Times of the Gentiles began and since the "
ism" of Judaism was effectively over, then God began to bring in Gentiles more and more to the point today that after 2000 years the numbers have switched. Now, there is a miniscule, tiny number of Jews for Jesus and the greater part of Gentile Christians is today what it was with Jews back then. But God made no covenant with Gentiles and God is saving Gentiles without a covenant. And the main reason for doing this is to make His Bride Israel jealous.
This is clear especially from verse 28 - "there is neither Jew nor Greek ... for all are one in Christ Jesus".
Saul/Paul is writing to Jewish Christians who were unsure of the effect Israel's Messiah had on the Abrahamic Covenant. That is the context of Saul/Paul's words in Galatians 3:28 and surrounding verses.
Saul/Paul is addressing Jewish Christians:
O foolish Galatians, who hath bewitched you, that ye should not obey the truth, before whose eyes Jesus Christ hath been evidently set forth, crucified among you?
2 This only would I learn of you, Received ye the Spirit by the
works of the law, or by the hearing of faith? Gal. 3:1–2.
And by being Jewish and Christ-followers these Jewish Christians suffered at the hands of their Judaic brethren:
4 Have ye suffered so many things in vain? if it be yet in vain. Gal. 3:4.
Here, Saul/Paul sets forth his position/argument to the Jewish Christians he's written to:
6 Even as
Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness.
7 Know ye therefore that they which are of faith, the same
are the children of Abraham.
8
And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed.
9 So then they which be of faith are blessed with faithful Abraham. Gal. 3:5–9.
The "nations" are not Gentiles but those that DID come from his [Abraham's] loins and that is the non-covenant Ishmaelites and the non-covenant descendants of Esau. THESE "
come out of thee" as God said to Abraham but they were not of the Isaac-ian Covenant.
From verse 10 to the end Saul/Paul is explaining to these Jewish Christians that Messiah's effect did not abrogate their inheritance under the Abrahamic Covenant, but instead IF they were of Christ were they ALSO of Abraham, and if they were of Abraham (covenant) and were filled with the Spirit (vs. 2) they also were of Messiah who was fulfillment of the Abrahamic Covenant.
Why did you change the order here? The verse says "If you are Christ's, then you are Abraham's seed and heirs according to the promise", not the other way around. This is the whole point that Paul is trying to make - all are one in Christ Jesus - all now form part of the covenant community of God.
The context is Jewish Christians and Jews under the Abrahamic Covenant, the suffering they have gone through at the hands of their Judaic brethren for being of "the Way" which they call 'heresy' is what Saul/Paul said. There is no difference for to be one is to be the other within the Abrahamic Covenant. IF they come to Messiah/Christ, being a Jewish Covenant they would also be of Abraham, and if they are of Abraham and the come to Messiah/Christ then they are Christ's, which is the word for "anointed" in Greek meaning they are of the Covenant Spirit that was Promised to and for Israel.
The "
all one in Christ" are Jews that
are Christ's/Messiah.
For although Saul/Paul makes this statement to Jewish Christians who received the Spirit by the hearing of "faith"
28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus. Gal. 3:28.
...he connects it to Abraham:
29 And if ye be Christ’s,
then are ye Abraham’s seed, and
heirs according to the promise.
Gal. 3:29.
Gentiles are not "heirs." Anything that is covenant, Israel is the heirs of THAT covenant.
What did that "certain man" ask Jesus?
And, behold, a certain lawyer stood up, and tempted him, saying, Master, what shall I do to inherit eternal life?
Lk. 10:25.
...and Jesus directs him to the Law.
And a certain ruler asked him, saying, Good Master, what shall I do to inherit eternal life?
Lk. 18:18.
...and Jesus directs him to the Law.
But then Saul/Paul says this:
18 For if the inheritance be of the law, it is no more of promise: but God gave it to Abraham by promise. Gal. 3:18.
Is there a contradiction here? Jesus directs one of His countrymen to the Law as his inheritance, and Saul/Paul says it is not the Law which is the inheritance but the promise. Did Saul/Paul say the same thing as God? Or is Saul/Paul contradicting God, which it seems here and elsewhere he does that.
28 And he said unto him,
Thou hast answered right: this do, and thou shalt live. Lk. 10:28.
Care to attempt to reconcile these two contradictory statements?