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Annihilationism is taught in the bible

It should be clear that "wailing and gnashing of teeth" in "the furnace of fire" is a major aspect of "everlasting punishment"
As for the "furnace of fire', scripture tells you where that was located. Isaiah once wrote about the Lord that His "fire is in Zion, and His furnace in Jerusalem". That "weeping and gnashing of teeth" was going to be done by those who would be saying, "We have eaten and drunk in thy presence, and thou hast taught in our streets." These were first-century Jews among whom Jesus had personally ministered and taught. Their anguish would be in seeing all their fathers the patriarchs with others coming from the east, west, north, and south in the kingdom of God, and with themselves rejected from entering that kingdom (Luke 13:25-30).
"Everlasting punishment" means that they never live again.
Yes to this.
 
The people from Adam to Moses couldn't sin (violate the law) because there was no law.

Yet death reigned over them because of imputed sin passed down to them from Adam.
Sin isn't necessarily related to "Violating" (Transgressing) a law. Sin that that which works EVIL, law or no law.

NO SIN was "Imputed" from Adam to anybody.

Biblically, people only die FOR THEIR OWN SIN. (Deu 24:16, 2 kings 14:6, 2 Chr 25:4)

The old illustration was the "Emergency Stop" cord on a train. The signs posted all along the cord said "Emergency Stop DO NOT PULL".

SO - if an adult who could read decided to pull it needlessly anyway, he was a "Transgressor" breaking the law, and the train would stop.

If a child, or a person who COULDN'T READ pulled the cord ignorantly, they WERE NOT a "Transgressor", but the train stopped anyway.

Simple as that.
 
Not if you compare the verses to each other and come to a conclusion based on a combination of the verses.

It should be clear that "wailing and gnashing of teeth" in "the furnace of fire" is a major aspect of "everlasting punishment"

I'm not going to make the gamble that it might be otherwise; for such a gamble might result in my wailing and gnashing my teeth for all of eternity.

Parables. Christ came speaking in parables. Do you know what parables are. I think you should study parables. You seem to come up short when dealing with parables. Parables.

Matthew 13:34
Jesus spoke all these things to the crowd in parables; he did not say anything to them without using a parable.
 
As for the "furnace of fire', scripture tells you where that was located. Isaiah once wrote about the Lord that His "fire is in Zion, and His furnace in Jerusalem".
chapter and verse? I want to look it up for myself (Acts 17:10-11).
That "weeping and gnashing of teeth" was going to be done by those who would be saying, "We have eaten and drunk in thy presence, and thou hast taught in our streets." These were first-century Jews among whom Jesus had personally ministered and taught. Their anguish would be in seeing all their fathers the patriarchs with others coming from the east, west, north, and south in the kingdom of God, and with themselves rejected from entering that kingdom (Luke 13:25-30).

Yes to this.
the wailing and gnashing of teeth would be the result of the flames consuming those cast into the furnace of fire. There are those in today's world who eat and drink in His presence; such as when there is a banquet in church and they provide worship as entertainment (for He inhabits the praises of His people).
 
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Sin isn't necessarily related to "Violating" (Transgressing) a law. Sin that that which works EVIL, law or no law.

NO SIN was "Imputed" from Adam to anybody.

Biblically, people only die FOR THEIR OWN SIN. (Deu 24:16, 2 kings 14:6, 2 Chr 25:4)

The old illustration was the "Emergency Stop" cord on a train. The signs posted all along the cord said "Emergency Stop DO NOT PULL".

SO - if an adult who could read decided to pull it needlessly anyway, he was a "Transgressor" breaking the law, and the train would stop.

If a child, or a person who COULDN'T READ pulled the cord ignorantly, they WERE NOT a "Transgressor", but the train stopped anyway.

Simple as that.
Sin is distinctly defined in 1 John 3:4 as the transgression of the law. The child in your analogy didn't sin by pulling the cord.

But I would say that I actually see your point: as I believe that the law of the Lord is established in the heavenlies and therefore when they sinned from the time of Adam to Moses, they violated that law; while they did not transgress any law that was established in front of them so that it could be said that they trespassed or transgressed an established law that was set forth in front of them. They did not cross over an established line when they sinned; they crossed over a line that was invisible to them and which they were unaware of.
 
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Parables. Christ came speaking in parables. Do you know what parables are. I think you should study parables. You seem to come up short when dealing with parables. Parables.

Matthew 13:34
Jesus spoke all these things to the crowd in parables; he did not say anything to them without using a parable.
Read Matthew 13:41-42 and Matthew 13:49-50, and consider also the context of these passages. The verses in question, in context, relate Jesus' explanation of certain parables as He explains the meaning of them. When it speaks of "the furnace of fire" and "wailing and gnashing of teeth", in context, Jesus is explaining the parables and therefore He is not giving parables in those verses but rather He is explaining what the parables mean.

Explanations of parables are to be taken literally as they give the true meaning of what was previously given as an analogy.
 
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Sin isn't necessarily related to "Violating" (Transgressing) a law. Sin that that which works EVIL, law or no law.

NO SIN was "Imputed" from Adam to anybody.

Biblically, people only die FOR THEIR OWN SIN. (Deu 24:16, 2 kings 14:6, 2 Chr 25:4)

The old illustration was the "Emergency Stop" cord on a train. The signs posted all along the cord said "Emergency Stop DO NOT PULL".

SO - if an adult who could read decided to pull it needlessly anyway, he was a "Transgressor" breaking the law, and the train would stop.

If a child, or a person who COULDN'T READ pulled the cord ignorantly, they WERE NOT a "Transgressor", but the train stopped anyway.

Simple as that.
Regarding the 'emergency stop cord', when Adam pulled the cord, everyone on the train stopped.
 
I agree completely that God does not create anything that goes to waste, even though I can't reconcile all applications of the principle. That those temporal things—which I described as made to "be no more"—are not wasted, to me, has to do also with the fact that I assume the things of this earth are not "the real" but only pictures of "the real" things of Heaven. (And by that I don't mean to say that those temporal things are not real).

Here is an illustration of what I am getting at. There is a scientific phenomenon known as "trophic cascade," where small, seemingly innocuous changes have far-reaching, unpredictable consequences. A clear example of this was seen when gray wolves were reintroduced into Yellowstone National Park and it actually resulted in changing the course of rivers, among other things (YouTube). It would not make any sense to suggest that these wolves might as well have never existed, because none of these changes would make sense without them.

(I remember watching a nature documentary from the BBC several years ago, hosted by Chris Packham, I believe, and every episode explored these mind-blowing trophic cascades that nobody could have guessed, like how an invasive mushroom led to a change in the songs of a native bird species which resulted in a particular kind of shrub going extinct. You think to yourself, "How the hell?" But then he shows you how it all interconnects and your mind is blown.)

So, my point was that if nothing is wasted, if everything in some way serves to accomplish God's purposes, then it is incoherent to talk as if creatures that cease to exist might as well have never existed, from God's eternal perspective (i.e., "as God sees apart from time"). This is especially true for unrepentant sinners who cease to exist; their manifold sins against a holy God had grave and eternal significance to God. To me, it just would not make sense to say that "if an unrepentant sinner ceases to exist, then, for all intents and purposes, he never did exist—as God sees apart from time."


... it is ludicrous, to me, that anything can cease to exist, and particularly that anything made in the image of God can cease to exist.

What I am hoping you can do is explain WHY it is ludicrous. But then maybe you can't.

Are you familiar with the argumentum ad lapidem fallacy? I'm trying to get you to avoid that one.


My bad. I didn't know annihilationists believe in an "eternal punishment" as such. To them, does eternal death equate with eternal non-existence?

As far as I understand things (which can be mistaken), they see two kinds of death in scripture, spiritual separation from God (dead) and metaphysical separation from God (uncreated). Those who remain spiritually separated from God in the here and now end up being metaphysically separated from God in the hereafter, cast out from the presence of the Lord. This is the idea at the root of eternal death, for God alone is the source of existence (creation and providence)—even his own (aseity). "I am the resurrection and the life," Jesus said. "The one who lives and believes in me will never die." Since countless believers HAVE died physically, he must be saying that they will never experience metaphysical separation from God; they will "not perish" but have eternal life. They don't perish, they sleep—until that great day when God calls them forth. It is those who live not and believe not in him that will surely perish (metaphysical separation).

On the other side of this coin is a metaphysical connection (being created) and a spiritual connection (being regenerated).


I like the thought that the separation from God is the antithesis to our unity in Heaven with God, who is our very sustenance. But I know that He is the very sustainer of existence itself, so it would seem to be not a perfect antithesis. I expect if I was to show this observation to an annihilationist, they would delight in the notion that theirs is a more perfect antithesis.

I don't think annihilationists see that as the antithesis. A spiritual connection with God (alive) is in contrast to a spiritual separation from God (dead), and a metaphysical connection with God (created) is in contrast to a metaphysical separation from God (uncreated).


To my thinking, it is a sloughing of terms to say that the damned will "become immortal." We do that a lot, though. We say that they will live in a continuing death, or words like that. I think it just means that they will not entirely cease to exist.

The one who says the wicked will "become immortal" (or "be made immortal") has implicitly recognized that the wicked are mortal—and that lands him in the conditional immortality camp. Well, we can't have that, of course, so let's fabricate a doctrine bereft of any scriptural warrant.


I'm not sure of your meaning [when you say] "intrinsic to human nature."

By "intrinsic" to human nature I mean "belonging naturally to" human nature. "An intrinsic property is a property that a thing has of itself, including its context. An extrinsic property is a property that depends on a thing's relationship with other things" (Wikipedia, s.v. "Intrinsic and extrinsic properties"). There is only one being to whom immortality is intrinsic, or who possess it in and of himself, and that is God (1 Tim 6:16). We are mortal, and it is only believers who are clothed with immortality at the last trumpet. The wicked remain mortal as they face their punishment.


In the common worldview, humans and all other things are, once-existent, intrinsically so, creator-irrelevant. Obviously, I don't hold to that. So I will agree that immortality is not intrinsic to the human nature.

Then you affirm conditional immortality. And now you need to explore and flesh out what that means, for it has far-reaching implications.


But "mortality" does not equal "subject to final annihilation."

No, it means that the wicked, in order to suffer eternal conscious torment, must be made immortal. God must sustain their existence forever and ever, as none but God is self-existent. Where do we find that in scripture? And how do we make sense of the apparent contradiction involved in the wicked being cut off from God but still metaphysically connected to him? How does that work, according to scripture?


As I read it in Scripture, the lake of fire is not just judgement—it is suffering.

And those are exegetical issues that can be explored. Here is something interesting to consider: Can you maintain the doctrine of eternal conscious torment in hell without citing the book of Revelations? There is a good chance the answer would surprise you, and it has fascinating consequences.


I see I have violated my own precept, "Don't apply math to the spiritual." But I think I did say something to the effect that this is how it seems to me, not that this is the truth.

I understood as much. And yet I still don't see the connection between humans as image-bearers and having a "permanent" existence. Can you make that connection for me, please?


You say that "the punishment for sin ... is death, which is forever." Unless you are an annihilationist, I don't know what you are saying, quite.

Whether or not I am an annihilationist should be irrelevant to my defense of annihilationism. I can also argue for young-earth creationism without affirming that view myself.

As for what I was saying, my hope is that what I said above made it clear. Eternal death is being metaphysically separated from God. There is no resurrection or any kind of life beyond that point; the wicked perish and there is no coming back from that. They are gone, forever.


If wrath is of itself an attribute of God, then it is not without all the other attributes of God. But maybe it is only God's dealing with sin, perhaps just our way of looking at his acts of justice.

That did not deal with the point raised by Stott, namely, that God's anger is poured out and spent. Without begging the question, where does scripture provide an example of God's anger being ceaselessly poured out?
 
Read Matthew 13:41-42 and Matthew 13:49-50, and consider also the context of these passages. The verses in question, in context, relate Jesus' explanation of certain parables as He explains the meaning of them. When it speaks of "the furnace of fire" and "wailing and gnashing of teeth", in context, Jesus is explaining the parables and therefore He is not giving parables in those verses but rather He is explaining what the parables mean.

Explanations of parables are to be taken literally as they give the true meaning of what was previously given as an analogy.
The word "FIRE" is being used to mean judgement. The crying and gritting of teeth is when they find out what is to be come of them. And you are wrong, Christ is telling a parable, and he is not explaining it.

The Parable of the Wedding Banquet​

Matt 22: 1 Jesus spoke to them again in parables, saying: 2 “The kingdom of heaven is like a king who prepared a wedding banquet for his son. 3 He sent his servants to those who had been invited to the banquet to tell them to come, but they refused to come.
4 “Then he sent some more servants and said, ‘Tell those who have been invited that I have prepared my dinner: My oxen and fattened cattle have been butchered, and everything is ready. Come to the wedding banquet.’
5 “But they paid no attention and went off—one to his field, another to his business. 6 The rest seized his servants, mistreated them and killed them. 7 The king was enraged. He sent his army and destroyed those murderers and burned their city.
8 “Then he said to his servants, ‘The wedding banquet is ready, but those I invited did not deserve to come. 9 So go to the street corners and invite to the banquet anyone you find.’ 10 So the servants went out into the streets and gathered all the people they could find, the bad as well as the good, and the wedding hall was filled with guests.
11 “But when the king came in to see the guests, he noticed a man there who was not wearing wedding clothes. 12 He asked, ‘How did you get in here without wedding clothes, friend?’ The man was speechless.
13 “Then the king told the attendants, ‘Tie him hand and foot, and throw him outside, into the darkness, where there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth.’

Here is a explanation.
14 “For many are invited, but few are chosen.”
 
Read Matthew 13:41-42 and Matthew 13:49-50, and consider also the context of these passages. The verses in question, in context, relate Jesus' explanation of certain parables as He explains the meaning of them. When it speaks of "the furnace of fire" and "wailing and gnashing of teeth", in context, Jesus is explaining the parables and therefore He is not giving parables in those verses but rather He is explaining what the parables mean.

Explanations of parables are to be taken literally as they give the true meaning of what was previously given as an analogy.
Matt 13:3 Then he told them many things in parables, saying:
 
I would only mention that the Bible teaches that certain people shall be cast into a "furnace of fire", where there shall be "wailing and gnashing of teeth" (Matthew 13:41-42, 49-50) and that this is "everlasting punishment" (Matthew 25:46)
It's not people but the instrument of death that kills "the letter of the law". The death of death along with its daily suffering of hell.

Yoked with Christ our daily burdens are lighter. We can miraculously pray give us this day the food the disciples knew not of at first the power to both hear the will of the Father and empower us to do it to his good Unseen Holy presence.

Thou shall not as in dying (good as dead). They no faith that could please the Father will not rise to receive a new body that will never die or grow old (dying) on the last day under the sun. The wailing and gnashing of the teeth is while they do have teeth It show they are angry at God not seen.

Anger blinds the mind.
 
chapter and verse? I want to look it up for myself (Acts 17:10-11).
Isaiah 31:9 for that "furnace" of God's fire being in Zion in the city of Jerusalem from antiquity.
the wailing and gnashing of teeth would be the result of the flames consuming those cast into the furnace of fire. There are those in today's world who eat and drink in His presence; such as when there is a banquet in church and they provide worship as entertainment (for He inhabits the praises of His people).

This sense of Christ being present in Spirit today is not the same thing as the incarnate Jesus on earth being bodily present when these had eaten and drunk in His physical presence. The incarnate Jesus had taught in their own streets. That is why they thought they could claim association with Christ's kingdom, but that wasn't enough to make them eligible for sitting down in this kingdom with their patriarchs. The weeping and gnashing of teeth was in realizing that their ethnic status by itself of close contact with Christ on earth as one of their own nation had no bearing on their ability to participate in the blessing of the kingdom.

The Lake of Fire was called the "second death" for a reason. It was the second time the city of Jerusalem and its temple had been destroyed by fire since the first time under the Babylonians. Death and Hell (Hades - the grave) were cast into the city both times (Isaiah 28:14-19 and Revelation 20:14). Those inhabitants besieged in Jerusalem would suffer torments as the city was burned down for the second time under the final Roman onslaught. Every unclean spirit that ever existed was imprisoned within the city during that time (Revelation 18:2), which added to the torment of the besieged inhabitants.
 
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Here is an illustration of what I am getting at. There is a scientific phenomenon known as "trophic cascade," where small, seemingly innocuous changes have far-reaching, unpredictable consequences. A clear example of this was seen when gray wolves were reintroduced into Yellowstone National Park and it actually resulted in changing the course of rivers, among other things (YouTube). It would not make any sense to suggest that these wolves might as well have never existed, because none of these changes would make sense without them.

(I remember watching a nature documentary from the BBC several years ago, hosted by Chris Packham, I believe, and every episode explored these mind-blowing trophic cascades that nobody could have guessed, like how an invasive mushroom led to a change in the songs of a native bird species which resulted in a particular kind of shrub going extinct. You think to yourself, "How the hell?" But then he shows you how it all interconnects and your mind is blown.)

So, my point was that if nothing is wasted, if everything in some way serves to accomplish God's purposes, then it is incoherent to talk as if creatures that cease to exist might as well have never existed, from God's eternal perspective (i.e., "as God sees apart from time"). This is especially true for unrepentant sinners who cease to exist; their manifold sins against a holy God had grave and eternal significance to God. To me, it just would not make sense to say that "if an unrepentant sinner ceases to exist, then, for all intents and purposes, he never did exist—as God sees apart from time."
That principle delights me. But if that relates to what I'm trying to say, it supports what I'm saying. As a "mathematical" statement, X exists, then X doesn't exist, makes no sense to my mind. It happened; it was real; it is fact —it doesn't then suddenly cease to be fact.
What I am hoping you can do is explain WHY it is ludicrous. But then maybe you can't.

Are you familiar with the argumentum ad lapidem fallacy? I'm trying to get you to avoid that one.
The mental picture of argumentum ad lapidem is humorous to me, sort of like how a suitable nickname for some certain character fits that person. I hope what I said above about X and not X, and 'real', does the job.
As far as I understand things (which can be mistaken), they see two kinds of death in scripture, spiritual separation from God (dead) and metaphysical separation from God (uncreated).
I'm having a bit of trouble following the description you give here. To me, the difference between them has nothing to do with whether they are created or not. They BOTH are created, as I see it. Metaphysical is also creation. God is not subject to anything he did not create, and there is no fact —not even the metaphysical— that he did not come from his creating.
Those who remain spiritually separated from God in the here and now end up being metaphysically separated from God in the hereafter, cast out from the presence of the Lord. This is the idea at the root of eternal death, for God alone is the source of existence (creation and providence)—even his own (aseity).
"I am the resurrection and the life," Jesus said. "The one who lives and believes in me will never die." Since countless believers HAVE died physically, he must be saying that they will never experience metaphysical separation from God; they will "not perish" but have eternal life. They don't perish, they sleep—until that great day when God calls them forth. It is those who live not and believe not in him that will surely perish (metaphysical separation).
On the other side of this coin is a metaphysical connection (being created) and a spiritual connection (being regenerated).
To say that God alone is the source of his own aseity is ticklish, and, I fear, too easily misunderstood. God can't be said to create himself, nor even to cause himself. He simply is, yet, that, in and of himself. But, to the point at hand: If there is a mode of eternal/infinite existence in the hereafter, then it is by God's word/ God's sustaining its existence. If eternal conscious torment is real, whether it is a question of length of time of torment, vs, let's say, torment without reference to time passage but rather, perhaps, intensity —if ECT is real, I say, God is involved in some sense. But if, on the other hand, what you describe annihilation to be, is the fact, then God need not be in any capacity relevant to the facts. It makes no sense to me. The whole notion disperses into incoherence.
I don't think annihilationists see that as the antithesis. A spiritual connection with God (alive) is in contrast to a spiritual separation from God (dead), and a metaphysical connection with God (created) is in contrast to a metaphysical separation from God (uncreated).
There is no uncreated thing, but God himself. Mathematically, then, I can't see that kind of annihilation. But, maybe, it's just that the words aren't working well here, for me.
 
The one who says the wicked will "become immortal" (or "be made immortal") has implicitly recognized that the wicked are mortal—and that lands him in the conditional immortality camp. Well, we can't have that, of course, so let's fabricate a doctrine bereft of any scriptural warrant.
Why can't we have that? God still sustains the existence of the devil and demons in the LOF —why not the wicked?
By "intrinsic" to human nature I mean "belonging naturally to" human nature. "An intrinsic property is a property that a thing has of itself, including its context. An extrinsic property is a property that depends on a thing's relationship with other things" (Wikipedia, s.v. "Intrinsic and extrinsic properties"). There is only one being to whom immortality is intrinsic, or who possess it in and of himself, and that is God (1 Tim 6:16). We are mortal, and it is only believers who are clothed with immortality at the last trumpet. The wicked remain mortal as they face their punishment.
Are the wicked not raised again to destruction? Call it what you want, I call it, in some sense, existence, and that is my point. "Eternally dying", "ECT", whatever. Aaargh! I don't like it much, but it makes me laugh, when words confuse the mind that began well enough.
Then you affirm conditional immortality. And now you need to explore and flesh out what that means, for it has far-reaching implications.
Of course. Immortality, as has already been established, (I thought), is conditional on the act of God. And there is no other theoretical state of being than is conditional on the act of God, whether mortal or otherwise.
No, it means that the wicked, in order to suffer eternal conscious torment, must be made immortal. God must sustain their existence forever and ever, as none but God is self-existent. Where do we find that in scripture? And how do we make sense of the apparent contradiction involved in the wicked being cut off from God but still metaphysically connected to him? How does that work, according to scripture?
Partly, I distrust the mental construction we must produce in order to deal with this —both the mere description, and the resulting logical incongruities. We too easily equate "God sustaining them in some sort of existence" with "immortality". I use the term 'immortal', as CS Lewis does, in, "immortal horrors", and my mind quickly ignores any logical self-contradiction there to go to the moral separation, that they are bereft of any virtue, and what they are is whatever is left of them when God withdraws all good from them. And I don't think it is a bad thing to remain unconvinced by what seems logical, yet feels dangerous for the mind. You and I have both seen madmen on these forums, who, as GK Chesterton said, have a logic all the more quick for lack of good sense. (No, that's not a quote).

And it may be possible, in God's economy, that moral and physical are one and the same thing. His is a 'simple' existence, in which we are to be included.
And those are exegetical issues that can be explored. Here is something interesting to consider: Can you maintain the doctrine of eternal conscious torment in hell without citing the book of Revelations? There is a good chance the answer would surprise you, and it has fascinating consequences.
Don't several authors refer to the punishment as a place, and torment forever? I know there are many ways that notion can be diminished, but I don't cotton well to those explanations, as I have heard them. Mark 9:44 on, and Daniel 12:2, for a couple examples.
I understood as much. And yet I still don't see the connection between humans as image-bearers and having a "permanent" existence. Can you make that connection for me, please?
As I said, it doesn't make sense to me, even apart from being made in the image of God. And I'm not saying that being made in the image of God makes us automatically immortal —far from it— but that being a special creation, in it's own right more special than even the angels, to me makes the notion of sudden cessation of existence seem all the more ludicrous. But there is a certain satisfying irony in the notion that the reprobate be of no more worth than inanimate objects. But I distrust where my mind takes that.
Whether or not I am an annihilationist should be irrelevant to my defense of annihilationism. I can also argue for young-earth creationism without affirming that view myself.
Should be. True. But, is? —not so much. We are not thoroughly logical beings.
 
Why can't we have that? God still sustains the existence of the devil and demons in the LOF —why not the wicked?
No, God made plans in Ezekiel 28:18-19 to burn up that anointed cherub to ashes upon the earth, so that "never shalt thou exist anymore". Satan is reduced to ashes. We can argue back and forth if the presence of ashes is a substance that denies annihilation, but suffice it to say, Satan was destined to be "slain" by God so that he did not exist any longer. Satan was a murderer from the beginning (John 8:44). And we know that no murderer has eternal life abiding in him (1 John 3:15). So Satan is not an immortal creature. Not even in the Lake of Fire.

Satan and his minions were also said to be destined to share the same fate of judgment by God's eternal fire, because Matthew 25:41 links them together in their final extinction. So if the entire Satanic realm is capable of being destroyed to ashes, why not wicked mankind also? After all, we have multiple examples in scripture of the wicked being consumed by fire. Only those who are "in Christ" can share His immortality vicariously. Those who are not in Christ don't share that.
 
No, God made plans in Ezekiel 28:18-19 to burn up that anointed cherub to ashes upon the earth, so that "never shalt thou exist anymore". Satan is reduced to ashes. We can argue back and forth if the presence of ashes is a substance that denies annihilation, but suffice it to say, Satan was destined to be "slain" by God so that he did not exist any longer. Satan was a murderer from the beginning (John 8:44). And we know that no murderer has eternal life abiding in him (1 John 3:15). So Satan is not an immortal creature. Not even in the Lake of Fire.

Satan and his minions were also said to be destined to share the same fate of judgment by God's eternal fire, because Matthew 25:41 links them together in their final extinction. So if the entire Satanic realm is capable of being destroyed to ashes, why not wicked mankind also? After all, we have multiple examples in scripture of the wicked being consumed by fire. Only those who are "in Christ" can share His immortality vicariously. Those who are not in Christ don't share that.
Do you believe that the wicked are not raised to face judgement?
 
Do you believe that the wicked are not raised to face judgement?
The souls of the wicked are raised to face judgment before God's throne in the "resurrection of judgment" (John 5:29). But since the wicked are not vicariously covered in Christ's righteousness, those wicked souls are destroyed by the eternal "fiery stream" of God's utter holiness coming forth from before Him (as that fire is portrayed in Daniel 7:10). They are never re-united with their physical body form which is left forever to disintegrate in the dust of the grave. End result: God destroys the wicked both body and soul (Luke 12:5). Only the righteous are blessed to be able to "dwell with everlasting burnings" (Isaiah 33:14).

I believe this is why Isaiah 26:14 says of the wicked dead, "They are dead, they shall not live; they are deceased, they shall not rise: therefore hast thou visited and destroyed them, and made all their memory to perish." It is their physical body that will never rise again after dying physically that one appointed time (Hebrews 9:27).
 
No, God made plans in Ezekiel 28:18-19 to burn up that anointed cherub to ashes upon the earth, so that "never shalt thou exist anymore". Satan is reduced to ashes. We can argue back and forth if the presence of ashes is a substance that denies annihilation, but suffice it to say, Satan was destined to be "slain" by God so that he did not exist any longer. Satan was a murderer from the beginning (John 8:44). And we know that no murderer has eternal life abiding in him (1 John 3:15). So Satan is not an immortal creature. Not even in the Lake of Fire.

Satan and his minions were also said to be destined to share the same fate of judgment by God's eternal fire, because Matthew 25:41 links them together in their final extinction. So if the entire Satanic realm is capable of being destroyed to ashes, why not wicked mankind also? After all, we have multiple examples in scripture of the wicked being consumed by fire. Only those who are "in Christ" can share His immortality vicariously. Those who are not in Christ don't share that.
Ezekiel 28:18-19, for what it is worth, does not appear to be directed at the devil, but at, perhaps, the King of Tyre. Also, several translations do not mention any cherub, except earlier in the chapter where it seems hard to separate the one who was in Eden from the King of Tyre, whom the prophecy is explicitly about. Either way, there is no firm satisfaction that the Devil himself is being referred to as being destroyed, but rather, I infer perhaps the devil's work in the Kingdom of Tyre. Your claim is not demonstrated by the quote, nor, even if you are right about who is reduced to ashes, have you shown how that means the devil does not exist in some immaterial way, to be tormented forever in the LOF.

Might be worth it for me to mention that our notion of immortal is tainted by our notion of mortal, and by our habits of necessarily temporal thinking. Granted that God must in some sense uphold the existence of the wicked and the devils, if ECT is true, and they will be raised to that judgement. Granted also, that annihilation fits nicely the notion of actual separation from God, yet the terminology requires something to be separated, which doesn't imply annihilation.

But consider the notion that God sees this completely differently from our ignorant child's prattle. Perhaps there is something to the idea of ECT being not for a long time, but in God's economy more a matter of intensity. While that idea might accommodate Annihilation, in that perhaps that intense moment of what @DialecticSkeptic calls metaphysical separation, the agony of passage would seem infinite, the notion implies a passage of time and not just sequence; in addition, the notion is not referenced as such in Scripture, and derives of human reasoning. It is only speculation.
 
Ezekiel 28:18-19, for what it is worth, does not appear to be directed at the devil, but at, perhaps, the King of Tyre.
The Satanic Prince of Tyre was working behind the scenes to influence the human Prince of Tyre for evil. The Ezekiel 28 context is divided into a discussion of both of these - starting with the human Prince of Tyre from Ezekiel 28:1-10 who would die by the hand of strangers ("thou art a man and not God..."). Ezekiel finishes with a description for the fate of the Satanic "anointed cherub" Prince of Tyre from Ezekiel 28:11-19, who would be burned to ashes by God Himself. Two different Princes are here, dying two different deaths - not just one Prince.

Once the anointed cherub is turned into ashes without any existence anymore, there is no chance for any kind of "immaterial" perpetual existence for him in a Lake of Fire. That Lake of Fire is not a perpetual phenomena. The fire mentioned is only eternal because the Source of that fire is eternal - not that the creatures consumed by that eternal fire are themselves to have a perpetual existence of some kind in that fire.
 
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