TrevorL
Junior
- Joined
- Aug 11, 2023
- Messages
- 320
- Reaction score
- 38
- Points
- 28
- Age
- 80
- Location
- Lake Macquare, NSW
- Faith
- Christadelphian
- Country
- Australia
- Marital status
- Married
- Politics
- Do not participate in politics - God rules in the kingdoms of men Daniel 4:17
Greetings again Red Baker,
Kind regards
Trevor
I appreciate your response. My own personal opinion is that if there was a minor error in the Hebrew text that he was reading, then he would have been inspired to correct the word or phrase as he read. I find it difficult to discuss with you on a number of aspects and in this subject my impression is that you will simply endorse the KJV and not be willing to look up any reference book, even ones that are readily available online. When I was young our YP's Class was given a list of occasions where Isaiah was quoted in the NT. It was only many years later that I encountered a list given in Barnes' OT Notes (available online at Bible Hub). In that list it groups the various occasions where Isaiah is quoted in the NT under various headings. These are something like NT Reference quoted from the Hebrew Text, another list from the LXX, and others that may have come from a different Hebrew text, and I think there are one or two more categories different to these. For example Isaiah 6:9-10 is quoted a number of times, and at least one of these corresponds to the Hebrew text and what it would say if translated from this text, and another quotation gives the sense from the LXX. One of my brothers in the faith who has a knowledge of Hebrew and Greek has stated that the Apostles carefully avoided some OT texts if they thought if either the Hebrew or the LXX was erroneous. On the other hand I do not believe that the KJV panel were also inspired, but they made some errors.When Christ went into the synagogues and stood up to read, he read the scriptures knowing that they were the exact words given to Moses, yet Moses had been dead for around 1400 hundred years ~ and the scriptures Moses had given had went through many thousands of hand written copies by scribes who were not inspired as Moses yet God protected his word!
No, I do not have a copy, and I am not concerned if you want to use "Jehovah", as long as you allow me to use "Yahweh". Again I suggest that the main reason that you accept "Jehovah" is because you are KJVO. I doubt that you would look up Strong's to read H3068, H3069, so I am not interested in discussing this aspect.Trevor, I do not want to address your sect's infatuation with a name that is not in the scriptures~I debated you on this subject on grace centered forum ( under RB ) ~if you have those debates saved on format, then bring them here and post them and let's finish the debate ~ be more than happy to do so, or, start another thread addressing this subject.
Again this is a KJVO deduction. I am not willing to discuss KJVO.God Almighty which the early Hebrews Patriarchs knew God by, yet, he later revealed himself to Moses as Jehovah, this is not my opinion but the very word of God: Exodus 6:3~"And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH was I not known to them." You want me to think his name is Yahweh? When God ( his title ) said that His name is Jehovah.... (his name! ).
Kind regards
Trevor