I apologize for length: Bottom Line up Front: I lean historical-grammatical, however, I do not ignore patterns of speech such as metaphor, allegory, simile, symbolism, or figurative. However, I don't believe allegory is present in messianic prophecies, 1st and 2nd coming. Parables are allegories, and I do not deny that. (An example of allegory found in scripture outside of messianic prophecies.)
Given the above (bottom line up front), I believe that the underlying prophecy does not change. There isn't some secretive, hidden message in the prophecies that say that Jesus will return in 1988, or 1993, or 2013, or any other date. Even Jesus didn't know when He would return. He only knew the various happenings that would surround His return. Did the Father tell Him these things in allegory and tell Him to figure it out? The scripture as a whole, however, does contain allegory. Parables are allegories. Consider that when Jesus prophesied the last days, He began with "I tell you truly..." In other words, I give you what is to happen, and I give it to you straight. He also used parables to explain aspects of the prophecies, but they were not given as prophecies. They were given as similes. This is what it will be like. No, I'm not going to dress up as a brides made. Not happening.
Let's look at the prophecy that the Jewish leaders threw back at Jesus. He said that if they destroy the temple, He would rebuild it in three days. As someone who looks at it literally, I understand that the temple is Jesus (the Bible kind of told us) and that the destruction is HIs death, and the rebuilding is His resurrection. None of the parts of the prophecy are changed. To show this, consider an exaggerated allegorical/spiritualized approach. Look. The temple has been destroyed. There is Jesus, the contractor, the handyman, the one who has to rebuild, on HIs knees wondering how He will rebuild it. Then, He figures it out. He is going to rebuild it in three days. But wait, that isn't possible. So considering prophecies in the past like Daniel, and prophecies to come, we can see that as one week signifies 7 years, then a day must signify 7 weeks. And there are three of them. 777, the number of perfection. So, Jesus will rebuild the temple in 21 weeks. But that can't be right, because it isn't enough time. So, let's consider that when Jesus told us how many times to forgive others, that 7 was multiplied by 70. So 7 weeks times 70 gives him 490 weeks to rebuild the temple by Himself. That is so much more possible than three days. And that rebuild includes reinstituting the practices of the temple. That must be it. -- (I told you this would be greatly exaggerated.) This is what happens when one disregards a literal view of the prophecy, utilizing understandings of symbolism, metaphor, simile and figurative forms of speech. It also uses a bit of eisegesis. (Okay, a lot of eisegesis.)
This is the problem of using allegory in interpreting prophecy. There are many interpretations, and no way to support any of them, since it is all eisegesis. The definition of allegory is : "a story, poem, or picture that can be interpreted to reveal a hidden meaning, typically a moral or political one." Those hidden meanings usually come from outside the actual passage, and are made to fit.
Consider the passage about Satan being bound again. What I hear here is that this is allegorical of Satan no longer being able to stop/hinder the Great Commission. Why do A/I and Postmil say this? Because if they went with what Revelation says, they would have to admit that they are wrong about 70AD. Why? Look at the situation in Revelation at the time. Satan had just deceived all the nations of the world into attacking Jerusalem, symbolic of God's people, and God Himself. (He is their protector) So prophecy says that Satan is bound in chains, thrown into a bottomless pit, shut up inside, and sealed there. That seal means his power is sealed. Why does the prophecy say this is done? So he cannot deceive the nations for a period of time. Exegesis would say that this is what the prophecy means, because Satan had just finished deceiving all the nations of the world once. Exegesis would also say that since the following prophecy says that Satan was released for a short while so he can go and deceive the nations again to surround the camps of the Saints and the holy city (I wonder what that city would be?) that that further locks down the meaning of the prophecy. It is literal. The only thing that may be figurative is how Satan is bound, but considering Peter speaks of demons who are in prison in chains since the days of Noah, I don't find it all to difficult to see this as more literal then some others might. The problem for A/I is that throughout history, one can clearly see Satan deceiving the nations of the world still. In 1948, almost all the Arab nations attacked Israel to wipe it out of existence. And they fought two other times. God's people. However, Israel crushed them. Then you have this guy...um...His...Him...oh yeah, Hitler, who attempted to destroy all the Jews with his "final solution". Germany was deceived into trying to wipe out the Jews. All this means Satan is not bound and sealed from deceiving the nations. Why do people do things like this with interpretation? It is because the literal understanding of the prophecy does not line up with their beliefs, and their beliefs are what matters. Instead of allowing their beliefs to be shaped by prophecy and understanding, they reshape the prophecies to fit their beliefs. The Jewish people did this with messianic prophecies of Jesus first coming, and completely missed it. There interpretations were so far off that they didn't bat an eye when Herod asked where the king was to be born, since it wouldn't be the Messiah they were looking for. They knew the prophecies. They didn't have to go and look it up. The way it is in English is that Herod asked his question, SO they answered by saying Bethlehem, and gave the prophecy. It almost sounds like they were hesitant in answering. Like, wait, this isn't how it is supposed to be. However, that is only my feelings on the passage.
Do I have the answer. Of course...not. However, my beliefs have changed some due to new understanding about prophecy. I did not change the prophecies to fit what I believed. When something doesn't fit, then there is the time of figuring out what in my belief is causing it, in case it needs to change. What information do I not have, not, what do I need to change in the prophecy to get it to fit. Yes, there is still reconsideration of the prophecy, but I don't give much room for changing it. Hence, I have started considering a pre-wrath rapture, instead of pre-trib/mid-trib. Though I see mid-trib as being pre-wrath.