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FATE OF THE UNREACHED

This is not the testimony of the word of God~maybe a testimony from men like the Wesley's, who was a Armenians~even though children of God in error.
Wesley was a type of Arminian, not someone from Armenia.

Every genuine Christian I've known, who has told me his testimony, has said something broadly similar to what I posted (obviously, the circumstances can vary widely).

Then David, you are showing me that you are still in error on this all important doctrine and you do not understand John 3:1-8.

Do you not understand why John 3:1-8 is in the word of God? You said:

The word of God said that the new birth is like the wind, not being hit like a truck!
Oh, good grief!

I was talking about the perception of the person who has been born again, not that the Holy Spirit is unseen and cannot be predicted!


Briefly.....Nicodemus came to Jesus and made a very, sincere, godly confession, concerning who Jesus was, a confession as sound and scriptural as anyone on this forum could make. He said: "we know that thou art a teacher come from God: for no man can do these miracles that thou doest, except God be with him."

This is a confession of a man that has been quicken to life, yet without very much spiritual understanding, as we see by knowing the rest of thsi discourse. Even the Lord said this to him: "Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born again,he cannot see the kingdom of God. "

These words are written for our learning to show us that such an humble confession as Nicodemus gave proves that he was born of God.
No, Nicodemus was not born of God! He had precisely zero spiritual understanding, in spite of being "the teacher of Israel", which is why he kept talking about natural things and the Lord kept talking about spiritual things.

Jesus made it clear that Nicodemus needed to be born again and that he should have known that from the OT Scriptures.

The Lord went on to explain how this birth takes place~by comparing it to the wind. The wind cannot be seen, from where it comes and where it goes (so much more could be added, but trying to keep this short).

When we read this discourse we must understand that the new birth is totally unperceived by us as to the exact working of it~we can only see the result of it. The when the new birth take place, man is totally passive, God alone is the only active person working, he comes and go unperceived by man. A person could be doing just about anything under heaven when God is quickening that person to life. You could even be dead asleep, and many other such things~he does not need our cooperation in thsi birth, neither does he need the will of another man helping him.
We all know this.

David, you are just about as confused as Nicodemus was, even though a godly man, yet he had a long ways to go in his understanding of such truths, even then, he may never have grasp its truths.

I have an outline of these wonderful verses...a verse by verse exposition where I could provide much more detail.
No thanks; I prefer godly wisdom and understanding to proud confusion.
 
Oh, good grief!

I was talking about the perception of the person who has been born again, not that the Holy Spirit is unseen and cannot be predicted!
When the Lord was speaking of the new birth by the Spirit, it was not so much as Him being unseen and cannot be predicted, but of the very fact that man himself does not not know when the Spirit has quickened a person from being dead in trespasses and sin to spiritual life, a creation of a new man within them, that has the power to hear, see, and understand the scriptures~but, just as it is with new born children of this world, it will take time for them who have been born of the Spirit, to being able~and to this one could add many things.
No, Nicodemus was not born of God!
Then you give me your understanding of John 3:1-8~the Lord certainly was not speaking these words to a man not regenerated, for that would have been a waste of his time and knew this better than you or I.

It is easily proven that Nicodemus was born of the Spirit, by what Jesus said to him.

John 3:3​

“Jesus answered and said unto him, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God.”

Why did the Lord say these words with a double verily? You obviously have no clue! Yet you think you can talk about folks experiences of the moment/time of them being quicken to life! Again, you are no better off than Nicodemus was at the time when the Lord was speaking to him, if you are better off in understanding, then it is not much better.

Jesus used a double verily knowing what he was about to say few would ever spiritually comprehend his teaching! He also knew that this is the true teaching concerning the results of regeneration~power would be given through the new man to believe, even though everyman's faith would be on different levels and each would react differently according to their own personal genetic makeup and hindrances hindering them.

Nicodemus never left the Pharisees as far as we know, yet, he showed his faith in John 3; John 7:50,51; John 19:39,40! Why are these scriptures recorded for us by the Holy Ghost? Not to just fill up space. I'll stop, since you said:
No thanks; I prefer godly wisdom and understanding to proud confusion.
The Lord judge bewtween you and me as to who is under the power of proud confusion, as you called it. Selah
 
Are you sure?
Yes! Justification being counted for righteousness, i.e., declared righteous. That is what justification is. When one has been justified he has been saved.
Alternatively, if faith occurs at the moment of faith, then it doesn't occur at the moment of salvation.
Huh?
All of it is a gift of God from God and not the causation of the sinner. That was the point being made in Post 116.
Salvation is the gift. In Ephesians 2:8, the meaning of "charis" has the sense of God's graciousness more so than as a gift. It is used is the sense of the nature of God. It is one of His attributes. To be saved by grace is in contrast the false notion of being saved by law. It is a theme displayed throughout the NT. It is at the heart of all of Paul's writings. The "through faith" is the means whereby one gains access to that particular aspect of God's grace.
Those comments directly contradict the assertion salvation is in no sense of ourselves. Be careful about backing a guy who contradicts himself.
I am not backing anyone. I am simply stating a biblical truth. To be saved means being justified, regenerated and (initially) sanctified. All three are acts of God and all three occur at the same instant in time in the life of the sinner being saved. That is the instant that the lost sinner becomes a child of God, designated in the NT as a saint [hagios]. There is no such thing as one being saved that has not been justified, regenerated and (initially) sanctified.
 
When the Lord was speaking of the new birth by the Spirit, it was not so much as Him being unseen and cannot be predicted, but of the very fact that man himself does not not know when the Spirit has quickened a person from being dead in trespasses and sin to spiritual life, a creation of a new man within them, that has the power to hear, see, and understand the scriptures~but, just as it is with new born children of this world, it will take time for them who have been born of the Spirit, to being able~and to this one could add many things.

Then you give me your understanding of John 3:1-8~the Lord certainly was not speaking these words to a man not regenerated, for that would have been a waste of his time and knew this better than you or I.

It is easily proven that Nicodemus was born of the Spirit, by what Jesus said to him.

John 3:3​

“Jesus answered and said unto him, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God.”

Why did the Lord say these words with a double verily? You obviously have no clue! Yet you think you can talk about folks experiences of the moment/time of them being quicken to life! Again, you are no better off than Nicodemus was at the time when the Lord was speaking to him, if you are better off in understanding, then it is not much better.

Jesus used a double verily knowing what he was about to say few would ever spiritually comprehend his teaching! He also knew that this is the true teaching concerning the results of regeneration~power would be given through the new man to believe, even though everyman's faith would be on different levels and each would react differently according to their own personal genetic makeup and hindrances hindering them.

Nicodemus never left the Pharisees as far as we know, yet, he showed his faith in John 3; John 7:50,51; John 19:39,40! Why are these scriptures recorded for us by the Holy Ghost? Not to just fill up space. I'll stop, since you said:

The Lord judge bewtween you and me as to who is under the power of proud confusion, as you called it. Selah
You are going onto a well deserved status of "ignore".
 
That is correct; justification is not synonymous with salvation. However, justification occurs at the very same instant of salvation.
Are you sure?
Yes! Justification being counted for righteousness, i.e., declared righteous. That is what justification is. When one has been justified he has been saved.
No, justification is not being counted for righteousness or being declared righteous, you did not answer the question asked, and you're now conflating justification, righteousness, and salvation.

Justification means to be able to stand before God in order to plead one's case in pursuit of acquittal or absolution. It is a legal term. In modern vernacular it is the equivalent of a case being dismissed because there is no justification for the judge to even hear the case. In scripture no one has standing, or justification to stand before God, because all are sinners. We obtain the ability to ostand before God by faith...... and that is simply one small part of what God does when He saves a person. He provides them with a means by which they can stand before Him.

Righteousness means blameless and innocent. No one is wholly blameless or innocent because all have sinned, and fall should of God's glory. Only God is righteous. A few people in the Old Testament are called blameless (Heb. tsaddiq) but every single one of them is a sinner and, therefore, not innocent. There blamelessness comes from their being people who believed God (not believed in God), and as a consequence they were deemed righteous when they were not. None of them were complete apart from Christ and the Church (Heb. 11:39-40). Abraham's faith was credited to him as righteousness, but he was not, in himself, righteous (Gen. 15:6; Gk.: dikaiosuné, Rom. 4:3); Gal3:6).

A person must first have a basis on which s/he can stand before God before s/he can, in fact, stand before God, and then, once standing before God, they must have a means by which they can be declared blameless and innocent. Justification and righteousness are related, but they are not synonymous.

Salvation is a much, much larger condition in which a person is no longer subject to sin and no longer subject to God's wrath, which is commensurate to the condition of sin. Justification is a constituent element of salvation. So too is the crediting or attribution of innocence when a person is de facto not innocent. Other constituent elements of salvation are regeneration, sanctification, and subsequent works, to name only a few. None of these constituent elements are identical or synonymous with one another. To conflate them is to commit a construction fallacy. If the terms are identical in meaning and significance then there is no need whatsoever for multiple terms. One word can be used.
 
Alternatively, if faith occurs at the moment of faith, then it doesn't occur at the moment of salvation.
I meant exactly what I posted and take the fact it's not grasped as evidence of some lack of knowledge or comprehension.

Volitionalism asserts faith precedes regeneration. This can mean only one thing: a person can, does, and must assert faith prior to becoming regenerate. That, in turn, can mean only one of two possibilities: Either 1) the faithing person faiths prior to being saved because a person must be regenerated before they can be said to have salvation, in which case justification by faith does not occur at the same time as salvation (as has been previously asserted), or 2) there are a bunch of faith-people walking around who are not yet regenerated and, therefore, not yet saved. The word "precedes" in "faith precedes regeneration" is what kills volitionalism in all its forms. In practical application it becomes the basis of self-contradictory claims like the pones you've been posting. These terms cannot all be identical, nor can they all occur at the same time if, in fact, faith precedes regeneration.


If faith occurs at the moment of faith, then it does not occur at the moment of salvation. Regeneration must occur in between the two. The three are no synonymous, they cannot be conflated, and they do not occur at the same time.

If, on the other hand, ALL of it is a gift from God and not an attribute or function of the Spirit-less sinful flesh and regeneration precedes faith, then there is a means by which the former slave to sin can assert the God-given gift of faith and be saved.
 
All of it is a gift of God from God and not the causation of the sinner. That was the point being made in Post 116.
Salvation is the gift. In Ephesians 2:8, the meaning of "charis" has the sense of God's graciousness more so than as a gift. It is used is the sense of the nature of God. It is one of His attributes. To be saved by grace is in contrast the false notion of being saved by law. It is a theme displayed throughout the NT. It is at the heart of all of Paul's writings. The "through faith" is the means whereby one gains access to that particular aspect of God's grace.
ALL of which is a gift from God. You're dancing around the point, avoiding the point, and obfuscating the exegetical and logically necessary conclusion it is the entirety of salvation, not this pert or another, that is a gift from God.
The "through faith" is the means whereby one gains access to that particular aspect of God's grace.
Yes, and it is a gift from God, just as much as every other aspect of salvation is a gift from God..... and not of ourselves.
 
I am not backing anyone.
The posts prove otherwise.
I am simply stating a biblical truth.
Scripture proves otherwise.

What you're posting is doctrinally informed and biased personal opinion that conflates faith, justification, righteousness, and salvation both denotatively and temporally. There is no truth in any of it whatsoever. .
To be saved means being justified, regenerated and (initially) sanctified. All three are acts of God and all three occur at the same instant in time in the life of the sinner being saved...............
Faith precedes regeneration, according to volitionalism. You have, therefore either denied the basic tenet of volitionalism or contradicted yourself because both cannot be true at the same time. Justification cannot be the same as salvation or faith cannot precede regeneration.
There is no such thing as one being saved that has not been justified, regenerated and (initially) sanctified.
I completely agree. That is not the problem in your argument. Thinking that is the problem misses the problem and serves only to catch you up in a red herring of your own invention.

Faith cannot precede regeneration IF justification by faith, regeneration, and salvation are synonymous terms all meaning the same thing that all happen at the same time. It is logically IMPOSSIBLE for that to be true.
I am simply stating a biblical truth.
Scripture and the posts prove otherwise.
 
I am not backing anyone.
Then let me encourage you, let exhort you, to address the opening post.....

....because, having just surveyed the entire thread, it looks like you jumped into the already existing discussion solely to dispute others without every addressing the op. Tell @Buff Scott Jr. your views, not the rest of us.

....because, otherwise, it looks like you've jumped into the thread with your own op-irrelevant agenda and are violating Rule 3 of the tou.

Please also make a conscious and deliberate attempt to post content relevant to the point of inquiry or comment specified in an opening post. For example, not every post is about end times. Not every thread on soteriology is about all of salvation. Do not hijack others' threads for your own purpose or agenda.​

And surely that is not what we should be thinking about you or your posts, is it? ;) This cannot possibly another occasion when someone has entered an already existing conversation and posted their own op-irrelevant views expecting everyone to stop discussing the op to discuss the irrelevancy.


Tell @Buff Scott Jr. your views, not the rest of us. We're discussing Buff's op. After all, as I said, you would not want to unwittingly be supporting someone else's views.
 
No, justification is not being counted for righteousness or being declared righteous, you did not answer the question asked, and you're now conflating justification, righteousness, and salvation.
“Justification means something God does. Indeed, it means a very specific thing God does.” It is true that God also regenerates, sanctifies, and glorifies; but these are not the same as justification. “Justification has a distinct meaning.” What is this meaning? The noun usually translated “justification” is dikaiosis; the verb “to justify” is dikaioo. These terms are from the same word family as “righteous” (dikaios) and “righteousness” (dikaiosyne), which suggests that justification has something to do with righteousness. The problem is to identify the proper connection between them.

In Christian theology since the Reformation there have been two main competing views of the meaning of justification as it relates to righteousness. One is that justification means that God declares us righteous by imputing righteousness to us; the other is that justification means that God makes us righteous by imparting righteousness to us.

Herein lies one of the major differences between classic Roman Catholicism and Reformation Protestantism. To most Protestants this view of justification is seriously wrong and is a major stumbling block to a proper overall understanding of salvation and to a Christian life of peace and assurance. They understand God’s act of justification to be not the impartation of righteousness, but the imputation of righteousness. “To justify” means not to make righteous, but to declare righteous, to count or accept as righteous. The state of justification is not an ever-increasing holiness of character, but a complete right legal standing before the law of God and a freedom from the law’s penalty. This is generally the Reformation (Protestant) understanding. I am presenting it here as the biblical view. That justification means to declare righteous rather than to make righteous is seen in the use of the verb dikaioo in Luke 7:29, which says literally that the people who heard Jesus’ teaching about John the Baptist “justified God” (KJV). Obviously this cannot mean that the people made God righteous; they were simply declaring or acknowledging him to be righteous. Thus the NASB translates this as “They acknowledged God’s justice,” and the NIV says they “acknowledged that God’s way was right.”

Likewise when God justifies us he is not making us righteous but is declaring us so. That this is the proper meaning of the concept is also seen in the fact that in Scripture justification is basically a legal (judicial, forensic) concept. That is, in the Bible it is a judge’s verdict or finding after he has considered the evidence and found a person to be innocent. “To justify” is always the opposite of “to condemn.” For example, Deuteronomy 25:1 says that when men go to court, “the judges decide their case, and they justify the righteous and condemn the wicked.” Likewise Proverbs 17:15 condemns a corrupt judge “who justifies the wicked” and “condemns the righteous” (see Isa 5:23). This same contrast between justification and condemnation is seen in God’s own judicial verdict: “Who will bring a charge against God’s elect? God is the one who justifies; who is the one who condemns?” (Rom 8:33-34; see Matt 12:37). Obviously when a judge condemns someone he does not thereby make that person guilty; he only discovers and declares him to be so. Likewise when a judge justifies someone he does not thereby make that person innocent or righteous; he simply declares him to be so.

The best way for a Christian to understand what it means to be justified is to picture himself as a defendant standing in a courtroom before God as the presiding Judge, and to hear God pronounce his verdict: “No penalty for you!” Many will say that God’s judicial declaration is “Not guilty!” but I do not accept this. Justification does not remove our guilt, but it deals with it by removing the condemnation that goes with it (Rom 8:1). Thus the Judge’s precise declaration is “No penalty for you!” To be justified thus does not mean that God treats me just as if I’d never sinned, but rather just as if I’d already paid my penalty. Basically justification is the same as forgiveness of sins, remission of sins, and the washing away of sins (in the sense that God removes them from the books and does not hold them against us). This becomes clear as we follow Paul’s line of thought from Romans 3:27 through Romans 4:8. After asserting the fact of and using the language of justification throughout this passage, Paul proves his point by citing Psalms 32:1-2, “Blessed are those whose lawless deeds have been forgiven, and whose sins have been covered. Blessed is the man whose sin the LORD will not take into account.” This shows that justification and forgiveness are one and the same. God justifies sinners by forgiving them, by not holding their sins against them. It is important to see that justification is thus not a change in our character or in our inner nature; it is a change in our relationship to God and especially to God’s law. The change is objective, not subjective. It solves the problem of guilt, not the problem of corruption.
 
Then let me encourage you, let exhort you, to address the opening post.....
I sort of addressed the opening post in post #98. Though only as a question. But I think the truth relative to the question raised by the OP might be addressed with the answer to that question.
 
ALL of which is a gift from God. You're dancing around the point, avoiding the point, and obfuscating the exegetical and logically necessary conclusion it is the entirety of salvation, not this pert or another, that is a gift from God.

Yes, and it is a gift from God, just as much as every other aspect of salvation is a gift from God..... and not of ourselves.
Faith, believing in God, is something we do. If there is a gift to be associated with faith, it is that the human being is given the ability, at some level, to do so, that is to believe in God. But it is only the ability to hear, comprehend, and believe that can be considered to be a gift. It is not something given to one but not another.

We are saved by grace through faith. Grace is God's part; faith, believing in God, is our part. Faith is not an aspect of salvation; rather, it is the basis upon which God exercises His grace to give the gift of salvation.
 
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Faith, believing in God, is something we do. If there is a gift to be associated with faith, it is that the human being is given the ability, at some level, to do so, that is to believe in God. But it is only the ability to hear, comprehend, and believe that can be considered to be a gift. It is not something given to one but not another.

We are saved by grace through faith. Grace is God's part; faith, believing in God, is our part. Faith is not an aspect of salvation; rather, it is the basis upon which God exercises His grace to give the gift of salvation.
Why do you insist that there are 'parts' —God's part and our part— to what is "not of [our]selves"?

Nobody is denying that WE believe, there is no claim that we don't do anything, except in the efficaciousness or application to us of Regeneration, even Salvation. It is not done by ANYTHING but pure grace of God. We are not asked for permission nor are we consulted as to any particulars nor do we make any decision in the matter, except SUBSEQUENTLY, as a result of the new birth by the Spirit of God alone. And then, oh yes indeed we DO decide!!
 
Why do you insist that there are 'parts' —God's part and our part— to what is "not of [our]selves"?
Because there is God's part and there is our part. The gift of salvation comes by God's grace through our faith. Monergism is a false doctrine.
 
“Justification means something God does. Indeed, it means a very specific thing God does.” It is true that God also regenerates, sanctifies, and glorifies; but these are not the same as justification. “Justification has a distinct meaning.” What is this meaning? The noun usually translated “justification” is dikaiosis; the verb “to justify” is dikaioo. These terms are from the same word family as “righteous” (dikaios) and “righteousness” (dikaiosyne), which suggests that justification has something to do with righteousness. The problem is to identify the proper connection between them.

In Christian theology since the Reformation there have been two main competing views of the meaning of justification as it relates to righteousness. One is that justification means that God declares us righteous by imputing righteousness to us; the other is that justification means that God makes us righteous by imparting righteousness to us.
You are leaving out a very, very, very, very, very, very, very, very, very important point. Stop leaving it out. The righteousness is imputed..... on the basis of our being able to stand before God to plead the case for salvation. We do not plead our own case. That is not what I am saying. We do stand before God. No one can stand before God and live. Those God justifies can stand before God. To those God justifies he imputes righteousness.

Justification is not the same thing as imputing righteousness; they are intrinsically related, not identical.
Herein lies one of the major differences between classic Roman Catholicism and Reformation Protestantism. To most Protestants this view of justification is seriously wrong and is a major stumbling block to a proper overall understanding of salvation and to a Christian life of peace and assurance. They understand God’s act of justification to be not the impartation of righteousness, but the imputation of righteousness. “To justify” means not to make righteous, but to declare righteous, to count or accept as righteous. The state of justification is not an ever-increasing holiness of character, but a complete right legal standing before the law of God and a freedom from the law’s penalty. This is generally the Reformation (Protestant) understanding. I am presenting it here as the biblical view. That justification means to declare righteous rather than to make righteous is seen in the use of the verb dikaioo in Luke 7:29, which says literally that the people who heard Jesus’ teaching about John the Baptist “justified God” (KJV). Obviously this cannot mean that the people made God righteous; they were simply declaring or acknowledging him to be righteous. Thus the NASB translates this as “They acknowledged God’s justice,” and the NIV says they “acknowledged that God’s way was right.”
The NIV is wrong and you're still not being clear. Re-read that paragraph. You did not specify the "They..." Is it RCC or Prots who understand justification is the impartation of righteousness, and not imputation? Can you see how you were not clear there? Can you also see this is a red herring because no one is talking about the RCC view? If you and I share a Prot view and the Prot view is imputation, then you and I do not need to waste a single sentence talking about what someone who is not here believes. We can and should be focusing on the one single, solitary, lone point I broached way back at Post #126.

In synergist soteriology justification does not occur at the same time as salvation, which is exactly what Post 126 states.


That is correct; justification is not synonymous with salvation. However, justification occurs at the very same instant of salvation. Here, I take salvation to mean that point in the life of the penitent believer when God changes him from being a lost sinner to being a saint and given eternal life. There are several different words and phrases that point to that instant in the life of the one who has been saved. Those different words and phrases are not always present in every instance the subject is broached, but always implied.

There are only two options here: Either 1) You're not synergist, or 2) You're contradicting your own synergist doctrine of salvation. That is the crux of the issue and nothing else. Post 150 is a lengthy avoidance of that one single, solitary, lone point. You picked one sentence out of Post #116 and qualified it to say justification occurs at the same time as salvation. I was telling Buff justification, not salvation, is by faith. Buff posted salvation is by faith. Scripture never states any such thing. Scripture states justification is by faith. You affirm the latter but then say justification and salvation co-occur.

They cannot co-occur if faith precedes regeneration.

Post 150 wasted both our time because it does not address that problem. Most of Post 150 are points that are not in dispute between us, but they contradict some of you own posts so I am telling you to take more time, be clearer, and make sure you are not contradicting yourself our your own synergist soteriology.


Grace is a gift from God. Faith is a gift from God. Salvation by grace through faith is a gift from God. The whole thing. Not one part only or another part only; the whole clause. The plain reading is very much disputed with a portion reading the Ephesians 2 passage to say only grace is gifted, others to say only the salvation is gifted, and still others to say everything before "gift" is the gift. The faith through which salvation occurs is a gift; it is not of ourselves. Salvation is not by faith, Salvation is through faith. Justification occurs by faith, but not salvation.

Therefore, when you say justification and salvation co-occur, they are different by co-occur, and you ALSO say, "The 'through faith' is the means whereby one gains access to that particular aspect of God's grace," you're making the same mistake Buff made. This is undeniable if you also believe, "Every competent person has the will to either believe in God and His son—or reject them," as Buff claimed.

  • Justification is by faith.
  • Salvation is through faith, the means whereby one gains access to that particular grace.
  • Justification and salvation are different.
  • Justification and salvation co-occur.
  • Salvation is a gift.

That is what you have posted. The problem is synergism teaches faith precedes regeneration. To be wholly accurate, synergism teaches it is the fleshly faith of the unregenerate, sinfully dead and enslaved sinner working apart from the Spirit gifting faith that saves, and competent sinner has the will to believe. The sinner asserts his ungifted faith and thereby gains access to at least one of the particulars of God's grace.

That's just a fancy way of saying salvation is by faith.

That is not what scripture teaches.
 
You are leaving out a very, very, very, very, very, very, very, very, very important point. Stop leaving it out.
I didn't leave it out. God's declaring one as righteous is imputing righteousness.
 
I sort of addressed the opening post in post #98. Though only as a question. But I think the truth relative to the question raised by the OP might be addressed with the answer to that question.
Yes, I read Post 98 before I recommended the op be addressed.


We are told about eternal life and we are told about eternal condemnation. Are those the only two possible outcomes for all humanity?

Can you now see that does nothing whatsoever to address the fate of the unreached or the claims made by @Buff Scott Jr. in this opening post? Everyone agrees there are only two options. The question asked was answered by the statement that preceded it. Had the question been posted first then the sentence that followed would have answered that question. That post amounts to a question asked and answered. It says nothing about the unreached.

Neither does it say anything about what I (and others) brought to this op. You picked one sentence out of one of my posts (Post 116) and took up a conversation with me by affirming, "Justification is not synonymous with salvation," and adding "However, justification occurs at the very same instant of salvation." There's no scripture to support that point of view, no scripture was provided, and the assertion directly contradicts synergist soteriology that teaches faith precedes regeneration.

If faith precedes regeneration and a person is justified by faith, the faith of their sinful flesh and not a faith that is gifted by God, and regeneration comes afterward.... then justification does not co-occur with salvation.

Or.....

Because justification and salvation co-occur and both are the means whereby the still unregenerate gains access to that particular grace (which is what you posted) the bottom line is that salvation is by faith, and it is causally by faith, according to what you've posted and there is not a single verse in the entire Bible that states any such thing. It has nothing to do with RCCism or Protestantism. It has everything to do with the highly interpretive use of scripture and the many internal contradictions in your own posts.

If you do not want to make up the views expressed in this op with its author that's fine with me, but if you're taking up the matter of justification not being synonymous with salvation with me then you need to look first at your own viewpoint because as it has been asserted here in this thread it is very inconsistent. I have purposefully stayed out of the conversations you're having in this thread with other posters, partly because that's between you and them, but also because if I were to bring my forensic skills to those posts the list of inconsistencies (and blatantly incorrect claims) would be much greater than the conflicts your posts to me have with faith precedes regeneration and the premise any competent sinner (an oxymoron) has the will, the faculty, to believe in God.*








*Point of clarification for everyone. Faith in God is not salvific. Faith in Christ is salvific, but not causally so. All that talk about faith/belief in God (or believing God) is all a red herring. 99.999999999% of the people in the Bible, including the pagan gentiles, believed in a god, and every Jew in the Bible believed in THE God of the Bible. That belief did not save any of them. John 3:18.
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Yes, I read Post 98 before I recommended the op be addressed.


Can you now see that does nothing whatsoever to address the fate of the unreached or the claims made by @Buff Scott Jr. in this opening post? Everyone agrees there are only two options. The question asked was answered by the statement that preceded it. Had the question been posted first then the sentence that followed would have answered that question. That post amounts to a question asked and answered. It says nothing about the unreached.

Neither does it say anything about what I (and others) brought to this op. You picked one sentence out of one of my posts (Post 116) and took up a conversation with me by affirming, "Justification is not synonymous with salvation," and adding "However, justification occurs at the very same instant of salvation." There's no scripture to support that point of view, no scripture was provided, and the assertion directly contradicts synergist soteriology that teaches faith precedes regeneration.

If faith precedes regeneration and a person is justified by faith, the faith of their sinful flesh and not a faith that is gifted by God, and regeneration comes afterward.... then justification does not co-occur with salvation.

Or.....

Because justification and salvation co-occur and both are the means whereby the still unregenerate gains access to that particular grace (which is what you posted) the bottom line is that salvation is by faith, and it is causally by faith, according to what you've posted and there is not a single verse in the entire Bible that states any such thing. It has nothing to do with RCCism or Protestantism. It has everything to do with the highly interpretive use of scripture and the many internal contradictions in your own posts.

If you do not want to make up the views expressed in this op with its author that's fine with me, but if you're taking up the matter of justification not being synonymous with salvation with me then you need to look first at your own viewpoint because as it has been asserted here in this thread it is very inconsistent. I have purposefully stayed out of the conversations you're having in this thread with other posters, partly because that's between you and them, but also because if I were to bring my forensic skills to those posts the list of inconsistencies (and blatantly incorrect claims) would be much greater than the conflicts your posts to me have with faith precedes regeneration and the premise any competent sinner (an oxymoron) has the will, the faculty, to believe in God.*








*Point of clarification for everyone. Faith in God is not salvific. Faith in Christ is salvific, but not causally so. All that talk about faith/belief in God (or believing God) is all a red herring. 99.999999999% of the people in the Bible, including the pagan gentiles, believed in a god, and every Jew in the Bible believed in THE God of the Bible. That belief did not save any of them. John 3:18.
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Sorry, but your position that faith is a gift is wrong. Monergism is a false doctrine.
 
I didn't leave it out. God's declaring one as righteous is imputing righteousness.
Which is what I wrote prior to you doing so. All that was needed was a plain, simple, unqualified, "Amen!" and not a lengthy red herring that missed the legal connotation of the term. It's not the imputing you left out. I am pleased and encouraged you understand the imputation and we have a point of agreement. What was left out was the standing before God part of the jurisprudence.

And you did, in fact, leave that out. It's now happened...

Thrice!

Next post: Yes, Josh, you're correct, justification is about the ability to stand before God so as to be declared righteous even when we are not de facto righteous. From a defacto pov we are not righteous, but from a de juror pov we are imputed as such. And the reason that distinction is important is because synergism teaches faith precedes regeneration and no one is saved apart from regeneration....... so it is incorrect to say justification by faith co-occurs with salvation if you're a synergist. Another reason the distinctions between "by and "through," and de facto and de juror, and correlation versus causality are important is because your posts are not consistent with what scripture states. If your "whereby" is causal, then you are arguing a salvation by faith (causal) and not a salvation through (correlative) faith and a justification that co-occurs with salvation without regeneration.

That is why I urged caution and a reading of the op.
 
Sorry, but your position that faith is a gift is wrong. Monergism is a false doctrine.
Prove it.

Prove it op-relevantly and prove it op-relevantly because it is NOT okay for you to jump into any thread you like and hijack it for your own purposes, just so you can ignore the topic everyone else is discussing so you can impose your soteriology on the entire thread.


Which is another reason why I recommended you read the op and reply to the op, according to the op.
 
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