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The phrase Limited Atonement was used to make the acronym TULIP. Unfortunately that has caused many an Arminianist of one flavor or another to recoil in horror. And is used on this gut reaction alone, to turn many away from even examining the doctrines any further. The problem they fail to recognize is that they are the ones that actually have limited atonement, whereas Reformed theology teaches not an atonement that is limited, but one that is definite. The atonement of those who claim free will as the agent of our attaining salvation is severely limited to those who choose Christ with this said free will. In order to not make that limited they say Jesus paid for the sins of everyone whether they choose Christ or not. The illogic of that should be obvious but for some reason it is not to those who believe it. They have an atonement that is not only limited, but largely ineffectual, and a terrible case of double jeopardy. Oddly they also cry against the doctrines of predestination and election by saying that would make God unjust.
So what does definite atonement mean and where can we find support for it in the scriptures?
It means that the atonement Jesus made did exactly what God intended it to do. It gave some people to Jesus but did not give all people to Jesus. John 6:37 All those the Father gives me will come to me, and whoever comes to me I will never drive away.
John 6:39 ANd this is the will of Him who sent Me, That I shall lose none of all those He has given me, but raise them up at the last day.
John 17:24 Father, I desire that they also whom you have given me, may be with me where I am, to see my glory that you have given me because you loved me before the foundation of the world.
And how else is God going to give these people to Jesus and Jesus die for them, unless He knows them before the foundation of the world, elects them to salvation, predestines them to have faith in Christ, and calls them. "MY sheep hear my voice and follow me." "A stranger they will not follow." and gives them the faith they need. "By grace you have been saved through faith, And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, not a result of works, so that no one may boast.
The Bible tells us in Romans 9 And not only so, but also when Rebekah had conceived children by one man, our forefather Isaac, though they were not born and had done nothing either good or bad---in order that God's purposes of election might continue, not because of works but because of Him who calls---she was told, "The older will serve the younger." As it is written, "Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated."
And just in case there be any question as to what Paul is saying and why he asks and answers the anticipated response, "Is there injustice on God's part? By no means! For he says to Moses, "I will have mercy on whom I have mercy and compassion on whom I have compassion. So then it depends not on human will or exertion, but on God, who has mercy."
So definite atonement means that God was and is always serving His purposes, and He purposed to save some, but not all. And Jesus, went to the cross to do the work of redeeming them, exactly as God purposed. The atonement He made was great enough in scope to cover all peoples in all nations, but it was not intended to do so. As shown by the fact that the Bible also tells us that many more enter the wide gate that leads to destruction than those who enter the narrow gate to eternal life.
It is never good to talk back to God or tell Him what He can and cannot do or what He will or will not do.
So what does definite atonement mean and where can we find support for it in the scriptures?
It means that the atonement Jesus made did exactly what God intended it to do. It gave some people to Jesus but did not give all people to Jesus. John 6:37 All those the Father gives me will come to me, and whoever comes to me I will never drive away.
John 6:39 ANd this is the will of Him who sent Me, That I shall lose none of all those He has given me, but raise them up at the last day.
John 17:24 Father, I desire that they also whom you have given me, may be with me where I am, to see my glory that you have given me because you loved me before the foundation of the world.
And how else is God going to give these people to Jesus and Jesus die for them, unless He knows them before the foundation of the world, elects them to salvation, predestines them to have faith in Christ, and calls them. "MY sheep hear my voice and follow me." "A stranger they will not follow." and gives them the faith they need. "By grace you have been saved through faith, And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, not a result of works, so that no one may boast.
The Bible tells us in Romans 9 And not only so, but also when Rebekah had conceived children by one man, our forefather Isaac, though they were not born and had done nothing either good or bad---in order that God's purposes of election might continue, not because of works but because of Him who calls---she was told, "The older will serve the younger." As it is written, "Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated."
And just in case there be any question as to what Paul is saying and why he asks and answers the anticipated response, "Is there injustice on God's part? By no means! For he says to Moses, "I will have mercy on whom I have mercy and compassion on whom I have compassion. So then it depends not on human will or exertion, but on God, who has mercy."
So definite atonement means that God was and is always serving His purposes, and He purposed to save some, but not all. And Jesus, went to the cross to do the work of redeeming them, exactly as God purposed. The atonement He made was great enough in scope to cover all peoples in all nations, but it was not intended to do so. As shown by the fact that the Bible also tells us that many more enter the wide gate that leads to destruction than those who enter the narrow gate to eternal life.
It is never good to talk back to God or tell Him what He can and cannot do or what He will or will not do.