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Why Did God Plan for the Fall of Man?

Did God not have a plan for man's not-fall?
Why would He plan for Adam's not fall if He purposed that he would fall? Man is still being put at the center, and sin is being treated as an oops that might or might not have happened. God did not make man fall, but He purposed that he would fall. And if you want to know why, I will tell you, though you should know. For His own glory.
 
No if you think God can act outside His character you don't know God as well as you think.
If you think God cannot act outside His character you don't know God as well as you think.
That verse does not mean what you are trying to make it mean.
I do not believe you have a clue what I mean.
God is not evil, I agree, therefore He is not creating evil as you are trying to make it sound.
I have already addressed this matter. In an already sinful world God is sovereign over sin and He uses sin for His purpose(s). He did not make creation that way. He made creation good and sinless. That is His character: good and sinless. But the world became adulterated by sin and God, still being sovereign, can and does use sin and evil to accomplish His purpose.

If you thought I meant anything else then that is entirely on you and you should be asking yourself why it is you read things into my posts I never wrote.
He does not act outside of His character if He did, we would not be able to trust His word without question.
It is within His character to act out of character.
Why would He need a plan for a creation He had no intention of manifesting?


I have stated multiple time God has a plan, God has intent, and God has a purpose for creation. My point of dissent is not God having a plan. My point of dissent is God having to have a plan AND His absolutely necessarily having a plan specifically for the fall of humanity. God wouldn't have manifested creation if He did not intend to manifest it. Having manifested it He could have walked away from it and let it cease to exist. He could have planned the fall and planned every single human's destruction without any possibility of salvation. God could have done ANYTHING with creation.

Or nothing.
Of all the universes that could have been manifested this is the one God ordained.
Yep. No dispute there.

The salient point, though, is that God could have done many things but this op argues God MUST have manifested this one and MUST have had a plan specifically for sin and there's absolutely no way it could have been any other way. So when you post, "Of all the universes that could have been manifested," either implicitly acknowledge the infinite potential of God and rebutting the op's notion God MUST have a plan specifically for sin because there can be no other way, or you're contradicting yourself.

What is out of character for God is dependence on sin. It is possible to act out of character and use sin for His purpose, but it is not possible for God to become dependent on sin to determine His plan(s). The former is an act of omni-attributed sovereignty, but the latter compromises His omni-attributes and sovereignty. That is the fundamental error made in this op.

I know you are going to recycle that hogwash disputing God's dependency existing in the need to have a plan for sin but if the eventual occurrence of sin dictates to God in anyway then it is the event of the fall that is sovereign, not God's post hoc plan. If God knows everything knowable prior to creating a single atom then His knowledge of the fall cannot dictate to Him an additional plan specifically for the fall. He either has a plan already in place that covers all contingencies a priori (as I have argued), or He does not have a plan at all (which is possible but not something I believe, or something taught in scripture), or He says, "Oh My, I better address that thing. Let me make a plan for it" (which is what this op asserts). The last option compromises God's omni-attributes and sovereignty.
Everything from go to whoa is and occurs because God has willed it, permitted it or over-ridden the will of others.
That is correct. God is sovereign over all. His knowledge of sin and the condition of humanity's fall did not necessitate God needing a plan for the fall of man.
This is how God's will works. Balaam is a good example where we see how God's will works. The question becomes irrelevant when you know what and why God has done what He has done. I don't think your nuts, I think you're naive.
You have also got to stop using post-sin scripture to describe pre-sin conditions. It creates false equivalences and those make everything you post nonsense.
 
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....but He purposed that he would fall.
I agree, but I reject the simplistic answer "God purposed it for His glory." God is not the author of sin and He did no violence to the human will causing Adam to sin, nor did He do violence to the contingency of secondary causes that brought about Adam's disobedience. But I also hold the matter irrelevant. God's purpose(s) in creations were going to come about whether sin ever happened or not because God, His plan, and His purpose are not in any way dependent upon sin.

If God purposed human to fall, then God and everything else God purposed thereof (to use your preferred term) was dependent on sin. Now I have explained how and why this is a problem in several posts. God can be sovereign over sin with His purposes, but sin cannot be sovereign over Him in any way, including the necessity of His plan and its outcome, without compromising His divinity.
And if you want to know why, I will tell you, though you should know. For His own glory.
God is glorified no matter what He does. He does not NEED sin to glorify Himself and He does not NEED a plan specifically for sin to glorify Himself. God's glory is not a magical "get of rationality" car we get to play every time something comes up to which some do not know the answer. I will wager you have read me say, "God is glorified when He metes out the just recompense for sin just as much as when He saves by grace. The exact same cross that saves also condemns."

So, sin wasn't something God had to separately address. There's no NEED for a dedicated plan to specially address the fall of man. God has a plan and purpose for creation that would/will occur whether or not sin ever happens/happened, and in His sovereign almighty omniscience He made a plan so vast sin did not in any way necessitate anything upon God. Man is not at the center, sin is not an "oops," and God did not make man sin.
 
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Then why are you even asking the question why did God plan for the fall of man.
And the speculating about it with words used as though they are absolutes?
Would it be better if I asked if God had/has a plan for the redemption of fallen mankind?

And...

Do you think God had/has a purpose in decreeing the fall would take place?

And....

Would vindication of His verdict of His enemies, where they would be the ones finally admitting He was correct, be a way to have Glory?
 
"for the good for those who have matured into knowing the love of God" is nowhere found or implied in that scripture.

For those who fail/refuse to mature?
And, some do that.

All things, in their case does not work for the good.


If anyone sees his brother sinning a sin which does not lead to death, he will ask,
and He will give him life for those who commit sin not leading to death.
There is sin leading to death. I do not say that he should pray about that."
1 John 5:16


Instead... Their chronic carnality works for their ongoing discipline/hurt from God as they fail to glorify God.

Religious people living in their flesh can perform "human good."
Filthy rags in God's sight they end up with

Romans 8:28 only applies to those who God knows are on their way to maturity, and for those who are mature.

grace and truth ..................
 
I agree, but I reject the simplistic answer "God purposed it for His glory." God is not the author of sin and He did no violence to the human will causing Adam to sin, nor did He do violence to the contingency of secondary causes that brought about Adam's disobedience. But I also hold the matter irrelevant. God's purpose(s) in creations were going to come about whether sin ever happened or not because God, His plan, and His purpose are not in any way dependent upon sin.
I find it amazing that someone could think "God purposed it for His glory" a simplistic answer. It shows a lack of true understanding of the transcendency, sovereignty, and yes, glory of God, as well as the sola,"for His glory alone." The rest of that quote is nothing more than a repeating of yourself and an assumption that you actually know His purpose in creation of our world to the degree that you can say it was not dependant on sin. And that if it was all about sin and redemption, that would make God the author of sin. You are trying to defend Him. You think you are the one who has found THE answer to what is often a dilemma to some. But all you have done is to present God who created for one purpose, that purpose was thwarted, and so He had to rectify the situation, and fix His creation. Of course you will deny this and we will get a further putting down of all of us persons of lesser intelligence. Which is what most of your posts consist of should anyone have the audacity and stupidity to disagree with you. Even all of this will be dismissed as ad hominem while ignoring the way in which your own posts are filled with it. But if fact, that is not what it is, but an encouragement for one who requires a heavier hand, from admin, to do better.
God can be sovereign over sin with His purposes, but sin cannot be sovereign over Him in any way, including the necessity of His plan and its outcome, without compromising His divinity.
That you think anything I have said means that sin is sovereign over God is mind boggling. That you think if the fall of Adam was a part of God's purpose means that sin is sovereign over God is mind boggling. If the fall was His purpose, that purpose would be to defeat evil forever. Read the end of the book.
God is glorified no matter what He does. He does not NEED sin to glorify Himself and He does not NEED a plan specifically for sin to glorify Himself. God's glory is not a magical "get of rationality" car we get to play every time something comes up to which some do not know the answer. I will wager you have read me say
And how great is His glory made known when He destroys all His enemies! Evil was not invented or created or came into existence with the creation of man. We are simply how it came into the world God created for us.
So, sin wasn't something God had to separately address. There's no NEED for a dedicated plan to specially address the fall of man. God has a plan and purpose for creation that would/will occur whether or not sin ever happens/happened, and in His sovereign almighty omniscience He made a plan so vast sin did not in any way necessitate anything upon God. Man is not at the center, sin is not an "oops," and God did not make man sin.
He evidently purposed to address it through the creation of our world and the creation of us, for the utter destruction of evil. That is what the entire Bible shows Him doing.
 
If you thought I meant anything else then that is entirely on you and you should be asking yourself why it is you read things into my posts I never wrote.
Perhaps it is because you often seem to say one thing and then another when confronted with what was said. Never making yourself clear. And perhaps though you think you are dealing with the fact that God created a world in which sin was possible and then dealt with it, by saying He had a different purpose for cre.ating this world, and that that creation had nothing to do with sin or evil; and that that purpose would have been achieved without sin; therefore this creation was not dependent on sin; solves the problem of why sin is in the world without God being the author of it. But merely side steps it with what if theories, you do not even acknowledge as what ifs. Rather they are stated as absolutes and get frustrated when they are not accepted as such. In the first place you approach the issue from a logical fallacy. As though anyone was saying God is the author of sin, which they do not.
It is within His character to act out of character.
That is an oxymoron. God cannot be other than who He is.
My point of dissent is not God having a plan. My point of dissent is God having to have a plan AND His absolutely necessarily having a plan specifically for the fall of humanity.
He purposed for man to fall when He created him. Otherwise man would not have fallen. And He had a plan if you must, for dealing with it, but it was far greater than simply planning on the way in which to deal with it in man---we see what He was doing and doing for all eternity, in the epistles and in Revelation. He is destroying evil and the father of lies forever.
What is out of character for God is dependence on sin. It is possible to act out of character and use sin for His purpose, but it is not possible for God to become dependent on sin to determine His plan(s). The former is an act of omni-attributed sovereignty, but the latter compromises His omni-attributes and sovereignty. That is the fundamental error made in this op.
Is this a strawman? I have not read every post in this thread, and I do not bother to retain in my memory the content of every post of every person. Did anyone ever say that God is dependent on sin to determine His plans? His plans are made in order to deal with sin once and for all, and in order to do that, it is sin and its ultimate source, the devil, that must be addressed. Ultimately it is Satan that God is dealing with. He is always using sin for His purpose.
His knowledge of sin and the condition of humanity's fall did not necessitate God needing a plan for the fall of man.
It was man's fall that was necessary in order for God to deal with what He was dealing with. The "plan" the entire plan in all its details was already in place before the creation of man.
disputing God's dependency existing in the need to have a plan for sin but if the eventual occurrence of sin dictates to God in anyway then it is the event of the fall that is sovereign, not God's post hoc plan.
The sovereign act of God was the event of the fall.
 
For those who fail/refuse to mature?
And, some do that.

All things, in their case does not work for the good.
Then why does that scripture if continued past this point, say that "for those who are called according to His purpose"? And before that it says there is now no condemnation for those who are in Christ? And nothing can separate us from His love?

The one who is in Christ will always be discipline and corrected by our Father, and that usually does hurt. But that too is working for our good.
Religious people living in their flesh can perform "human good."
Filthy rags in God's sight they end up with

Romans 8:28 only applies to those who God knows are on their way to maturity, and for those who are mature.
The good that the redeemed perform is not as filthy rags before God, for they are given the righteousness of Christ through faith. Their filthiness has been washed by the blood of the Lamb. The righteousness that is filthy rags before God applies to those not in Christ. Romans was written to believers and applies to believers, not unbelievers. As does Romans 8:28.
 
Would it be better if I asked if God had/has a plan for the redemption of fallen mankind?

And...

Do you think God had/has a purpose in decreeing the fall would take place?

And....

Would vindication of His verdict of His enemies, where they would be the ones finally admitting He was correct, be a way to have Glory?
Yes. If only to have avoided all that followed generated on the subject of your wording by @Josheb. And his insistence that every one talk about what he wanted to talk about. :)
 
God could have made a purposeless creation. It would have been outside His character to do so, but He could have.
It is impossible for God to do anything without a purpose. That falls right up there in the category of those who claim He can and sometimes is arbitrary. If He has no purposes for something it would not come into existence or even enter His mind. His word always does what He sends it to do. He does not send it to do nothing and for no reason.
 
Then why does that scripture if continued past this point, say that "for those who are called according to His purpose"? And before that it says there is now no condemnation for those who are in Christ? And nothing can separate us from His love?

The one who is in Christ will always be discipline and corrected by our Father, and that usually does hurt. But that too is working for our good.

The good that the redeemed perform is not as filthy rags before God, for they are given the righteousness of Christ through faith. Their filthiness has been washed by the blood of the Lamb. The righteousness that is filthy rags before God applies to those not in Christ. Romans was written to believers and applies to believers, not unbelievers. As does Romans 8:28.
The Greek refers to a sense of...

"We have come to know that God works all things together for the good..... Not, simply: "we know."

Paul was selecting certain ears for his comment. "Those who have come to know."

The immature never achieve that status of understanding Romans 8:28. Some even enter into psychiatric care.

Though those who mature in doctrine will see even the failures of those failing to immature as God working together all things for for the good. But, not for their own good of those who refuse their cross needed to enter into the good fight.

Here is proof of what I speak...
For the time will come when people will not put up with sound doctrine.
Instead, to suit their own desires, they will gather around them a great number
of teachers to say what their itching ears want to hear. " 2 Timothy 4:3​
Now not everything is working together for "their" good. But for "God's good" all things do work.

Its the misapplication of that verse by too many believers living in presumption that Romans 8:28 needs to be clarified.
Some use Romans 8:28 for their own justification while they live in presumption..

Note: It does not say, "works together for their own good." But, works together for"the good." = God's purpose.

That is why I brought up that emphasis that needs to be properly understood by some.

grace and peace ..............
 
"We have come to know that God works all things together for the good..... Not, simply: "we know."
What's the difference? The "we" is still the believers he was writing to. Do you think they are all mature? Not likely as it was early days in the church.
Paul was selecting certain ears for his comment. "Those who have come to know."

The immature never achieve that status of understanding Romans 8:28. Some even enter into psychiatric care.
There is not even a hint in that passage that what you say is so. And what does psychiatric care have to do with what Paul is saying. What you leave out when you say these things is that it is God who works in us to accomplish His purpose. You treat it like He saved us then left us as orphans when it comes to becoming what He purposes us to become.
Though those who mature in doctrine will even see even the failures of those failing to immature as God has working together all things for for the good. But, not for their good of those who refuse their cross needed to enter into the good fight.
Do you consider yourself mature in doctrine and still adulterate scripture in the way you are doing?
Here is proof of what I speak...
For the time will come when people will not put up with sound doctrine. Instead, to suit their own desires, they will gather around them a great number of teachers to say what their itching ears want to hear. " 2 Timothy 4:3
That scripture applies to the one before it."I charge you (Timothy) in the presence of God ad of Christ Jesus, who is to judge the living and the dead, and by His appearing and His kingdom: preach the word; be ready in season and out of season; reprove, rebuke, and exhort, with complete patience and teaching.

Paul's death is imminent and he will no longer be around to guide Timothy who has been left in charge of a church. He is warning of what was to come and did come in the first century church and ever since, and the importance of it being stamped out with the truth.
 
What's the difference? The "we" is still the believers he was writing to. Do you think they are all mature? Not likely as it was early days in the church.

It takes time to mature and begin to see how God works all things together for the good.
It takes learning and understanding more and more sound doctrine to think with.

Why then do you think Paul said the following in Philippians 1:9?

"And this is my prayer: that your love may abound more and more in knowledge and depth of insight."

One must mature into seeing it.

How does a believer see God working all things for the good when we see abortion, Woke, wars, and Joe Biden?
It takes learning more and more and understanding how God allows for manifested evil in man to condemn evil ...

....... that your love may abound more and more in knowledge and depth of insight.
grace and peace ..........
 
It takes time to mature and begin to see how God works all things together for the good.
It takes learning and understanding more and more sound doctrine to think with.
Of course it does. Does that then mean that God is not working all for our good until we are mature in Christ?
Why then do you think Paul said the following in Philippians 1:9?

"And this is my prayer: that your love may abound more and more in knowledge and depth of insight."
One must mature into seeing it.
Of course! What does that have to do with the scripture that says God works for the good of the believer?
How does a believer see God working all things for the good when we see abortion, Woke, wars, and Joe Biden?
It takes learning more and more and understanding how God allows for manifested evil in man to condemn evil ...

....... that your love may abound more and more in knowledge and depth of insight.
The scripture in Romans does not say that God withholds working all things for our good until we we know that He is doing so. In all your maturity, why on earth do you think such would be the case? God works good for His covenant people because He is good. When we know that has nothing to do with that scripture. Paul is making a statement of truth, and says this in known---not that we know it. He is telling them this truth. They no doubt were not hearing it for the first time.
 
Repetition does not make it so.
And simply making this statement does not address the statement.
Sin was not created ex nihilo. It was not created; it was made, and it was made consequent to that which already existed.
Sin wasn't made either. Sin is. The minute something is made good it automatically brings its opposite into existence, for it cannot be good unless there is also a not good. There is no such thing as "up" unless there is also "down." No "front" unless there is also a "back." God is multidimensional and He created a dimensional world. And sin entered our world and us, through a created being who already existed in a state of having fallen. And who was fallen in the Garden. The Bible does not say that is when satan fell and became the father of lies. He already was the father of lies and lied to Eve.
That is true but that is not all that happened. His being changed.
OF COURSE IT DID! Why are you interjecting that into the conversation.
Whan Adam disobeyed God (this op is about the fall of Man) not only was a sin committed, but sinfulness set in. Man was changed. His ontology was changed. I've already explained how sin is not merely a matter of conduct. Repeating the same protest does not change the facts of scripture. Man sinned (conduct) and became sinful (ontology, or disposition) and he was/is incapable of rectifying that condition. Some disobedience can be rectified (amends, restitution) but sinfulness is irreparable (except by Christ). Man (and satan) once had the capacity to please God. No more (again, apart from Christ). Man was once alive. Now he is dead in sin and not just individually, all mankind is collectively dead in sin. Adam had the capacity to rebel against God, and he did, and doing so all humanity is no dead in sin. That is evil.
I was not repeating the same protest and I have never denied the above. I don't know why you found it necessary to post.
That's just hogwash. I have provided scripture - plainly read - for EVERYTHING I have posted. I posted a half-dozen scriptural citations and referenced more in the post just quoted.
You give no scriptural evidence for the following:
Before Eve and then Adam disobeyed God, lucifer/satan had done so. He did so after the six days of creation, and we know this because God would not have called sin "very good."
I have not disputed the scriptures you post but they do not say that the serpent created sin after the six days of creation, and that if this were not the case then God would not have called his creation good. I went over all of this before showing you where you make what ifs be actual facts, and showed you where you could not be right. But it went in one ear and out the other evidently, either that or another fact is that you can never be wrong about anything, as you said it again here and I was put in the position of refuting it again.
Yep. I already covered that.
And he was already a liar.
Incorrect. Statements from Genesis, Job, the psalms, and the prophets provide something of a timeline for the heavenly host's creation (and the fall of lucifer/satan).
A timeline? Lets see the timeline.
Incorrect, and I explained how that is incorrect. Satan could not have rebelled and been in the garden and God have called it good. Sin cannot exist in heaven or earth and God call it good. It is a self-contradictory, self-refuting premise. Creation was good. Sin came afterward. Genesis 1-2 is the story of creation. If the tradition of lucifer rebelling and become satan is true, then it happened AFTER creation was created and God called it good. Isaiah's report of the satanic fall has him worshiping God prior to his fall. It did not happen before Genesis 1:31.
Already refuted and explained. And as an aside, since you present all of your arguments on the subject as such---do you think the heavens and earth as we know them are God's only creation?
Speculation.
Yep that is what "for all we know" means. But why is your speculation fact and mine is presented as speculation. That was the whole point of my speculating as I did, which I also told you was the point of it, to show there are things we do not know and cannot know---not even you can know them.
What is "it"?
Creation of our world.
I do not read anyone disputing that. Nothing I have posted should be construed to say anything to the contrary.
This reply has no value because it is responding to something that you took out of its context.
So.....

....you've dropped into the thread asked me about things I have already posted more than once and challenged it with error, speculation, and "I do not present that as any sort of truth," and you want me to give it some credence?
I guess you find it convenient to miss the point on purpose.
I completely agree and nothing I have written should be construed to say otherwise. It is what God has revealed we can know.
Much of what you post can be construed that way. Starting with the oxymoronic idea that God can do things opposed to His own character. Or that He is capable of creating something that has no purpose. Satan first sinned in the Garden of Eden. That God didn't need sin to come into creation in order for it to be dealt with once and forever. That His purpose for creation would have been achieved without sin.
 
I find it amazing that someone could think "God purposed it for His glory" a simplistic answer.
Thank you for your time but if you cannot keep the posts about the posts and not the posters then do not expect further replies.

It is impossible for God to do anything without a purpose........
Sin wasn't made either.
I have already addressed both protests and after doing so more than once do not expect me to unnecessarily repost already posted content.
You give no scriptural evidence for the following:

I have not disputed....
The posts prove otherwise.
A timeline? Lets see the timeline.
No. First of all it's off-topic. This op is specifically about the fall of man, NOT the fall of satan. Second, you were the one making the baseless claim scripture does not tell us when satan fell so it's up to you, not me, to prove it. I do not do shifting onuses.


My time is being wasted and the neglect of already-posted content is unacceptable.
 
Yes. If only to have avoided all that followed generated on the subject of your wording by @Josheb. And his insistence that every one talk about what he wanted to talk about. :)
Never happened.
 
Of course it does. Does that then mean that God is not working all for our good until we are mature in Christ?

Of course! What does that have to do with the scripture that says God works for the good of the believer?

The scripture in Romans does not say that God withholds working all things for our good until we we know that He is doing so. In all your maturity, why on earth do you think such would be the case? God works good for His covenant people because He is good. When we know that has nothing to do with that scripture. Paul is making a statement of truth, and says this in known---not that we know it. He is telling them this truth. They no doubt were not hearing it for the first time.
You keep confusing "for a believer" with "for all believers."

There are Christians that do not even know Romans 8:28.


We are in a spiritual warfare. Wars produce casualties of war.
Believers can choose to reject truth, and many do.

Can you tell me if the following passage speaks of God working all things for good for all individual believers?

Everyone ought to examine themselves before they eat of the bread and drink from the cup.
For those who eat and drink without discerning the body of Christ eat and drink judgment on
themselves. That is why many among you are weak and sick, and a number of you have
fallen asleep (died)
. But if we were more discerning with regard to ourselves, we would not
come under such judgment."
1 Corinthians 11:28-31

Those ones never matured.

They were free to if they so chose to listen and believe what they were taught.
For no one could say Paul was deficient in his ability to teach God's Word.
They were without excuse and were reaping what they sowed.

When we walk in grace and truth we then reap what God has sown on our behalf!

Those believers never matured. Not be able to say they understood Romans 8:28.

And we know that in all things God works for the good of those
who love him, who have been called according to his purpose."

Those who play games with God's Word (as many do) do NOT love God.
They love the idea of being saved....But, refuse to accept sound doctrine!



For the time will come when they will not put up with sound doctrine.
Instead, to suit their own desires, they will gather around them a great
number of teachers to say what their itching ears want to hear."
2 Tim 4:3

Take it or leave it. It says what it says.

That is what we see in this forum and other forums on a daily basis.

God is not working for the good of all individual believers by allowing those who wish to, to seek false teachings.
False teachings that they find suits their own way of thinking fine, like finding clothes to wear to cover over their egos and pride.

grace and peace .................
 
You keep confusing "for a believer" with "for all believers."

There are Christians that do not even know Romans 8:28.
A believer is part of all believers. Does not knowing Romans 8:28 stop God from working for their good?
We are in a spiritual warfare. Wars produce casualties of war.
Believers can choose to reject truth, and many do.
The may not know all truth, and none do. They may not interpret things the way that you do or the way someone else does, but unless that interpretation changes the Christ of the Bible, and the means of salvation, it does not make them an unbeliever. Being mature is not a criteria of salvation. And a true believer will never reject Christ.
Can you tell me if the following passage speaks of God working all things for good for all individual believers?

Everyone ought to examine themselves before they eat of the bread and drink from the cup.
For those who eat and drink without discerning the body of Christ eat and drink judgment on
themselves. That is why many among you are weak and sick, and a number of you have
fallen asleep (died)
. But if we were more discerning with regard to ourselves, we would not
come under such judgment."
1 Corinthians 11:28-31
Those ones never matured.
Maturity has nothing to do with it. You are adding to the gospel. What is it they don't discern here? The sacrificed body of Christ. Put the verse into its context. They were abusing the Lord's Supper.
Those who play games with God's Word (as many do) do NOT love God.
They love the idea of being saved....But, refuse to accept sound doctrine!
Your own doctrine seem very unsound, so I wouldn't be throwing that particular stone. And you better pray you are not right in what you say here.
They were free to if they so chose to listen and believe what they were taught.
For no one could say Paul was deficient in his ability to teach God's Word.
They were without excuse and were reaping what they sowed.
And Paul was correcting them, not condemning them.
Those believers never matured. Not be able to say they understood Romans 8:28.
You knew them did you? Plus the church at Corinth was not the same audience as that of Romans and Paul was no dealing with the same thing in both places. And what he said in Romans about God working for the good of His people was not changed in any way by what was said at Corinth.
That is what we see in this forum and other forums on a daily basis.
And you are a part of that very thing when you adulterate the word in the way you are doing with just these three scriptures. Your doctrine is not sound. It is in opposition to what the Bible says and your stuff added to it.
God is not working for the good of all individual believers by allowing those who wish to, to seek false teachings.
False teachings that they find suits their own way of thinking fine, like finding clothes to wear to cover over their egos and pride.
How do you know He isn't? He allowed me to be in a lot of it before He brought me out of it. And when He did I learned how to discern truth by having experienced falseness. I learned why it was false and not just that it was. I learned the truth, and I know what counters the lies because I learned the truth. I learned more about God by coming out of the lie than I ever could have from never having witnessed the lies. It is often the means by which a person grows.
 
If you thought I meant anything else then that is entirely on you and you should be asking yourself why it is you read things into my posts I never wrote.
So you say He can act outside His character but you don't mean He can act outside His character?
The salient point, though, is that God could have done many things but this op argues God MUST have manifested this one and MUST have had a plan specifically for sin and there's absolutely no way it could have been any other way. So when you post, "Of all the universes that could have been manifested," either implicitly acknowledge the infinite potential of God and rebutting the op's notion God MUST have a plan specifically for sin because there can be no other way, or you're contradicting yourself.
No, the salient point is God didn't do many things, He did one thing. That's the point.
He could have walked away from it and let it cease to exist.
No, he couldn't walk away. You keep making God act like a human. He let sin and death enter because He loves His creation.

Hosea 11:8
“How can I give you up, Ephraim? How can I hand you over, Israel? How can I make you like Admah? How can I set you like Zeboiim? My heart churns within Me; My sympathy is stirred.

You have also got to stop using post-sin scripture to describe pre-sin conditions. It creates false equivalences and those make everything you post nonsense.
Sin did not change God so your argument is invalid.
 
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