Josheb
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Reposted from another thread
Whether a neologism or not, lapsarianism (small "l," speaks of the issue in general, just as "theism" speaks of the matters pertaining to divine entities. Judaism would be a particular theological viewpoint within theism. (Modern) Buddhism would be a non-theistic viewpoint within theism. Polytheism would be another viewpoint within the overarching matter of ~isms pertaining to the nature of God and/or the religious expression thereof. Similarly, if we were discussing different forms of government a variety of posters might assert monarchies, oligarchies, democracy, republics or any of the other governmentismsI have been substituting your word "lapsarianism" with a more precise term for two reasons:
1. Lexical clarity: Lapsarianism, as a noun, is a vague and unnecessary neologism. It doesn't name a doctrinal stance, nor does it correspond to any coherent theological position or system. There is no "–ism" about the fall per se. The word functions meaningfully only as an adjective, like "lapsarian views" or "lapsarian controversy." Supralapsarianism names a specific and historically defined position within Reformed theology, whereas lapsarianism doesn't point to any doctrinal position.

The word "lapsarianism" can be Googled. The term is defined as "Lapsarianism, a term derived from the Latin word "lapsus" (fall), refers to different views on the logical order of God's decrees, particularly concerning the fall of humanity, election, and reprobation. It explores how God's decisions regarding humanity's state and destiny relate to each other in His eternal plan" (highlight the AI's). GotQuestions opens its article on the subject with, "These three theological terms, discussed among Calvinist thinkers, deal with God’s predestination of certain individuals to be saved. The term lapsarian is related to the English word lapse; mankind’s fall into sin was a “lapse” in that it was a “slip” or a “falling” from their original state of innocence" (emphasis mine). Supralapsarianism would be one viewpoint, and infralapsarianism would be another viewpoint. Sublapsarianism would be a third viewpoint. All three seek to address the logical order of God's decrees.
That said, I'll stay out of the current dispute with the other poster other than to reiterate my position since I keep getting mentioned. I do not believe God authored the fall and/or created people prior to the fall for the sole purpose of eternal condemnation. Both positions are incorrect. Both positions contradict the whole of scripture and are inconsistent with Augustinian/Calvinist soteriology. I have stated I think the entire matter of lapsarianism is suspect. The debate may be useful as a construct for understanding the possibilities (logically and practically) of creation relevant too salvation but, as GotQuestions puts it, "the answers to the lapsarian issue are best left up to God" (again, emphasis is mine). However, I also find that statement a bit of a cop out, an avoidant response, because the exercise of considering the matter can be worthwhile as long as we do not commit hubris or create divisive doctrine over what ultimately cannot be known. Personally, I believe Jesus was coming into creation whether the fall happened or not. The "fall," therefore is irrelevant to God's decree, both logically and practically.
Carry on.