I was not conflating. You would have to say that Jeremiah was.
I will say by applying the words of Jeremiah in what God meant in Jermiah 4:23 as if He meant the very same thing in Genesis 1:2 is a lie.
But, Jeremiah had good reason.
For the Jews who heard Jeremiah? They knew what the Hebrew of Genesis 1:1 meant.
It was their 'native tongue."
They also knew that God in English was from the Hebrew word Elohim which is a plural word for deity as in deities or gods and yet they still maintain that God is simply a One Person God.
So no. They applied the words of Jeremiah as addressing the destruction that God has wrought by His judgment.
You do not get to apply Jeremiah 4:23 to Genesis 1:2 without citing the cause for said judgment when it was about signifying nothing was there in the beginning except water for when God spoke that light into existence to establish the beginning by that first day by its evening and morning that first day. It is by that light that the first day was created, signifying the beginning by its evening and morning that day.
It was not the light from the sun nor from the moon by night that established the first day because they were created the fourth day.
It appears to me that Biblical scholars lose themselves in translation by not defining the terms used in the message being given in Genesis.
Jeremiah needed to add for a reason ..
“The whole land will be ruined,
though I will not destroy it completely.
He needed to add those words because the Hebrew in Genesis 1:1, to their Hebrew thinking minds?
It indicated the earth in Genesis 1:1 was found in utter ruin!
That's why!
If Jeremiah did not add that God would not destroy completely?
It would have meant that the Jewish race and Israel would have been wiped from the face of the earth!
Those who spoke Hebrew, they knew that is what "tohu was bohu" meant.
This requires objective thinking.
“The whole land will be ruined,
though I will not destroy it completely.
In Christ....
Objective thinking is not required for understanding His words in the scripture but wisdom from the Lord does require it. So do ask Him rather than the so called educational minds of the world to tell you what the Bible actually meant.
1 John 2:20 But ye have an unction from the Holy One, and ye know all things. 21 I have not written unto you because ye know not the truth, but because ye know it, and that no lie is of the truth......26 These things have I written unto you concerning them that seduce you. 27 But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught you, ye shall abide in him. 28 And now, little children, abide in him; that, when he shall appear, we may have confidence, and not be ashamed before him at his coming.
Are you sure you are not being influenced by Catholic teaching to look to man to tell you what the scripture means? I know you are not Catholic, but that mentality can be seen as being similar to looking to the RCC for the truth in His words rather than to Jesus Christ Himself.
James 1:5 If any of you lack wisdom, let him ask of God, that giveth to all men liberally, and upbraideth not; and it shall be given him. 6 But let him ask in faith, nothing wavering. For he that wavereth is like a wave of the sea driven with the wind and tossed. 7 For let not that man think that he shall receive any thing of the Lord. 8 A double minded man is unstable in all his ways.
Jesus Christ is to be our personal Good Shepherd as He is the head of every believer. No scripture teaches us to go to educational men to teach us, but to the Lord.