Who are Gods 'Chosen'?

[Keiw1]

No faith, no salvation.

All who obey have faith.

 

[Keiw1]

No one denies they are not the same person.


It is not the only difference possible.

Well explain to us all the other difference when its the same Greek word to both at John 1 and 2 Cor 4:4

 

[Keiw1]

Outdated.
You are way too sheltered when it comes to data that we have readily available these days.
Jews absolutely did believe YHWH was a unity even before Jesus was born, and we have access to many ancient Jewish writings that prove they did.
You should try reading up on the vast amount of ancient Jewish writings found among the Dead Sea Scrolls for starters.

100% undeniable fact= Israel NEVER served or knew or taught YHWH as a trinity.

 

[Keiw1]

Then he was at enmity with God, biased against God.

Yet showed the world 100% fact at John 1:1--Why?

 

[Keiw1]

I go by the word of God.

4 According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love:
5 Having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will,
6 To the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein he hath made us accepted in the beloved.

He also says ,you must be Born Again to see the Kingdom Of God.

That’s a “ Living” spirit birth...Spirit gives birth to spirit.

That’s not something one can read into being....that’s an act of God...if he chooses to do so.

For those who are chosen and predestined to become Born Of God’s seed.

Its just saying Gods will= 100% some would stand strong in the last days.

 

[Tambora]

100% undeniable fact= Israel NEVER served or knew or taught YHWH as a trinity.

We have documentation stating otherwise, so remain ignorant on that fact is you wish.

 

[Keiw1]

We have documentation stating otherwise, so remain ignorant on that fact is you wish.

Share it.

 

[Tambora]

Well explain to us all the other difference when its the same Greek word to both at John 1 and 2 Cor 4:4

As with any language the same word can have different meanings.

"My wife is hot" can mean she is beautiful and sexy or that she is overheated and sweating.

 

[Eleanor]

All who obey have faith.

Obey what?

 

[makesends]

All who obey have faith.

Obedience goes farther than mere compliance. To obey Christ's law takes submission, which is impossible for those who have not been born again.

 

[makesends]

Yet showed the world 100% fact at John 1:1--Why?

What made you think it was 100% fact? I personally know a Koine Greek master who would disagree with what you think he proved to the world. I've never even heard of your supposedly unbiased interpreter, except from you. What makes you think the world read or heard what he argued? Your terminology sounds like clickbait. "The world has been turned on its ear by this guy!"

 

[makesends]

Obey what?

Exactly!

 

[Keiw1]

As with any language the same word can have different meanings.

"My wife is hot" can mean she is beautiful and sexy or that she is overheated and sweating.

That is not an explanation.

 

[Keiw1]

Obey what?

Jesus' teachings. The big one equals--man does not live by bread alone but by EVERY utterance from God=OT,NT study of it over and over it NEVER stops. That is Jesus' Fathers will(Matt 7:21)

 

[Keiw1]

Obedience goes farther than mere compliance. To obey Christ's law takes submission, which is impossible for those who have not been born again.

Few obey Jesus.

 

[Keiw1]

What made you think it was 100% fact? I personally know a Koine Greek master who would disagree with what you think he proved to the world. I've never even heard of your supposedly unbiased interpreter, except from you. What makes you think the world read or heard what he argued? Your terminology sounds like clickbait. "The world has been turned on its ear by this guy!"

20 translations minimum in history has a god at John 1:1

 

[makesends]

Few obey Jesus.

That's obvious. What's your point? How does that further the discussion?

 

[makesends]

20 translations minimum in history has a god at John 1:1

Another reasoning fallacy: "Argumentum ad Populum"

Large numbers prove nothing. But, if the numbers mean something to you, have you looked at how many translations have "God" instead of "a god", and have you noticed from what bias those who translate it, "a god", come from?

And no, again, I do not deny that those who translate it, "God", are/were also biased.

​

 

[Ritajanice]

Its just saying Gods will= 100% some would stand strong in the last days.

It’s saying exactly what the word of God is saying...very easy to understand.

 

[Eleanor]

Jesus' teachings. The big one equals--man does not live by bread alone but by EVERY utterance from God=OT,NT
study of it over and over it NEVER stops. That is Jesus' Fathers will(Matt 7:21)

And understood in the light of the NT. . .the revelation from Jesus.