I’m not sure if you are agreeing with me or not but the four verses I quoted do say that the spirit of antichrist was active in Johns day.
Scripture shows that the antichrist is a spirit and not a person and in Johns day according to Johns gospel the person example of the antichrist was apostate Israel
I do agree with you. I was trying to highlight what scripture actually, literally, explicitly states. Then, after recognizing what is stated, determined what is implied. For example,
1 John 2:18-23
Children, it is the last hour; and just as you heard that antichrist is coming, even now many antichrists have appeared; from this we know that it is the last hour. They went out from us, but they were not really of us; for if they had been of us, they would have remained with us; but they went out, so that it would be shown that they all are not of us. But you have an anointing from the Holy One, and you all know. I have not written to you because you do not know the truth, but because you do know it, and because no lie is of the truth. Who is the liar but the one who denies that Jesus is the Christ? This is the antichrist, the one who denies the Father and the Son. Whoever denies the Son does not have the Father; the one who confesses the Son has the Father also.
John explicitly states he was writing during the "
last hour." It's not the last day, the last days, the last time, the last times, the end of the age, or the ends of the ages. Those are the other temporal markers scripture uses. A day, a time, an age can all be a very, very long time and modern futurists make them extremely long lasting (two millennia or more). John is much more specific. The
hour has come, and it is the last one. What justification
in scripture would there be for making an hour last 2000+ years?
None.
It is the last hour. John did not say, "
The last hour will be coming soon," or "
The last hour will come." The last hour had arrived. So what? What's so important about the last hour?
The antichrist is coming.
Oh!
That
is pretty important.
The last hour had come upon the first century readers of John's epistles; it was there when John wrote the letter. Many antichrist had already appeared. We read the word "have" but that "have is not present-tense to us, it is present-tense to the original author and his original audience. For those of us living 2000 years later, the "have" is past tense. Children in the 21st century, it was the last hour back in the first century, the antichrist was coming and many antichrists had appeared at that time way back then. The reason they knew it was the last hour is because the antichrists had appeared. Antichrists were going to come in the last hour, they had come and, therefore, everyone in John's first century readership knew the last hour had arrived.
These are things the text
states. They are not
implied by the text, they are
stated by the text. No one has to read what is stated and ask, "
What can I infer in addition to what is stated?" and no one should be asking themselves about any inferences until and unless what is explicitly stated is accepted and believed.
Where'd these antichrists come from?
According to John the "
many antichrists" that had arrived, "
went out from us, but they were not really of us," so who is the "
us" to which John is referring? In other words, who is John's readership?
1 John 1:5-7
This is the message we have heard from Him and announce to you, that God is Light, and in Him there is no darkness at all. If we say that we have fellowship with Him and yet walk in the darkness, we lie and do not practice the truth; but if we walk in the Light as He Himself is in the Light, we have fellowship with one another, and the blood of Jesus His Son cleanses us from all sin.
The "us" were those who have fellowship with God, walk in the Light, and whose sins have been cleansed by the blood of Christ. The antichrists were not really of that group. The text explicitly
states they were not really of those cleansed by the blood. We can, therefore,
infer they were poseurs because they had come from among those thusly cleansed but were not authentically so. Not really. If they had been authentically of those in John's readership who'd been cleansed by Christ's blood then they would have remained with the "
us."
So, the antichrists were all former Christians

.
Which also means they were humans. The text does not state that but if the antichrist came from those cleansed by the blood and those cleansed by the blood then the antichrists were humans. They weren't demons. If they were humans living in the first century during the last hour, then they have ALL died long ago and not a single one of them is alive today, 2000 years later. That is what the text itself implies. I don't need a doctrine to tell me that. Bare logic is sufficient.
What
specifically was it that qualified those that had once been an inauthentic part of the "us," but weren't really, and had left? According to John, they could be recognized because they denied the Father and Son, and denied the Father and Son have each other. What is not explicitly stated but is implied is that they denied Jesus was the Christ (or Messiah or anointed one of prophecy).
- Many antichrists had come way back then in the first century.
- They came from among the Christians.
- They were not really Christians (they hadn't really been cleansed by Christ's blood).
- They were human.
- They denied the Son.
- The denied the Father.
- They denied the Father and Son have each other.
- They denied Jesus is the Christ.
- Because they had appeared, so too had the last hour.
John's first mention of "
antichrist," covers all of the above
explicitly. There is not warrant, nor any need to read anything more in the scripture. When I say there is not "warrant" in his letter for doing so I mean John says nothing indicating anything should be added. The idea something more is necessary or must be added to what he wrote comes from outside the text. It is extrabiblical, not biblical. For all of the above there is one antichrist in particular that was coming. Many had come. One in particular was coming in the last hour.
Did I miss anything? If so, please fill free to fill it in - just remember to stick to what is
stated and what the text itself
implies and NOT doctrinal interpretations adding to what the text
states.
John goes on to mention the word "
antichrist" one more time in this letter (
1 Jn. 4:3). He uses the word a third time in his second letter (
2 Jn. 1:7).
I'll let you exegete those mentions.