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The two justifications

EddieM

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James 2:24
“You see that a person is justified by works, and not by faith alone.”

It was not just this verse that got Martin Luther upset. Basically, he didn’t like the whole epistle of James (the half-brother of our Lord). In his 1522 German translation of the New Testament, Luther called the epistle of James an “epistola straminea.” I don’t know an ounce of German, but I do know how most translate this expression: an “epistle of straw.” (I guess this means that some liberal wolf could easily blow this verse over. )

To Luther, this verse (and the epistle itself) had to go. It had no place in the Bible. Now Romans was the greatest of books according to Luther, and as far as he was concerned, the apostle Paul took precedence over this imposter, James.

Well, James is no imposter. And I chose this verse to give us a glimpse into the theological point that James was making in this section, and may I add... brilliantly.

I’d like to draw our attention to the very last word in the verse above: ALONE. For those who remember their English grammar, “alone” can be either an adjective or an adverb. Rather than fuss over the English translation, let’s go behind the scenes to the source, namely, the Greek.

The last two words that appear here in the Greek New Testament of this verse look like this: PISTEWS MONON. My point in transliterating these words is simply to comment on the endings of them. Note that their endings are different. The first word, PISTEWS, is the word for “faith.” This word ends with -EWS. The second word, MONON, is “alone, only.” This word ends with -ON.

What this means is that MONON (translated into English as “only” or “alone”) does not modify the noun, “faith.” And to really clear things up a bit, let me add that MONON is an adverb here. And like most adverbs, they “add to a verb” (hence, add-verb) additional meaning. Or, as we learn in grammar, adverbs modify verbs.

Unfortunately, there is no verb in the final phrase of this verse. But that is not at all uncommon in Greek. All one has to do is supply one. And not just anyone; the context will always supply it. And the verb we need to supply is right there in the same sentence, “is justified.” Now, watch what happens when we clear up this English translation to reflect the Greek... with precision:

“You see that a person is justified by works, and not only (justified) by faith.”

All I’ve done so far is clear up the translation. We still need an accurate interpretation. That is, we need to see how this fits into the overall presentation of James. And rather than providing a commentary of James chapter two, let me just make a few simple observations.

What James is demonstrating in this section of Scripture is that there is more than one kind of justification. (Note that I did NOT say that James is presenting more than one kind of SALVATION. Do not equate justification with salvation, something that Martin Luther should have known better than to do.)

James is reminding his readers that there is a justification by faith. And, there is ALSO a justification by works. The two should not be merged, as they are in some Calvinistic camps.

In a verse or two before 2:24, note this comment by James:
“Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered Isaac his son on the altar?”

(Note that James does not say, “Was not Abraham our descendant SAVED by works...)

Here, we see a justification BY WORKS. James is not talking about salvation. In fact, Abraham had turned to God for salvation many years before this event with his promised son. You will recall that Abraham was a man of God long before Isaac was born, and this event James is illustrating took place long after Abraham became a saved man.

The justification by works that James refers to is more or less a demonstration (a public expression, if you will) of one’s faith. To put it another way, justification BY WORKS is seen or made evident BEFORE MAN, whereas justification BY FAITH is “seen” only by Members of the Godhead.

In other words, you can claim to have faith and not have it, but you
can not claim to have works and not have them. Works we can see; faith can not be seen by people.
In fact, James illustrates this justification BY WORKS in the very next verse in this manner:

“And similarly, was not Rahab the prostitute also justified by works when she welcomed the messengers and sent them out by another way?”

Quite naturally, Rahab was already a saved person long before she “hid” the messengers. What James is simply saying here is that Rahab’s faith can be "SEEN" or made PUBLIC... by her actions/works.

James is well aware of both justifications. His conclusion in this section is simply that (justification by) faith is what we exercise TOWARD God. But that kind of faith can not help a brother or sister in need unless we also have (a justification by) works, which is exercised TOWARD man. To James, faith toward God can not feed a hungry brother or sister. Unless one is moved to action (justification/vindication by works), brothers and sisters might go hungry.

I note also that James identifies those in need as “brothers” and “sisters,” indicating that James is talking about how saved people should act toward fellow Christians. He is NOT writing on HOW TO BECOME a believer, but HOW TO BEHAVE as a believer. Really, Martin Luther should have known better.

I prefer the translation Vindicated over Justification. Works can vindicate a man’s faith. Our faith vindicates our relationship with Christ, Godward. Could it be related to our sanctification (growing toward Christlikeness, this is vindication toward God) which occurs via faith. First vindication is toward mankind, whereas the second vindication is toward God.

All of which is to say, James knows nothing of a Faith AND Works Justification (singular).
 
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James 2:24
“You see that a person is justified by works, and not by faith alone.”
I wish God had made this more easily understood instead of necessitating such a complex explanation that is difficult to grasp and thus susceptible to misinterpretation.
 
James 2:24
“You see that a person is justified by works, and not by faith alone.”

It was not just this verse that got Martin Luther upset. Basically, he didn’t like the whole epistle of James (the half-brother of our Lord). In his 1522 German translation of the New Testament, Luther called the epistle of James an “epistola straminea.” I don’t know an ounce of German, but I do know how most translate this expression: an “epistle of straw.” (I guess this means that some liberal wolf could easily blow this verse over. )

To Luther, this verse (and the epistle itself) had to go. It had no place in the Bible. Now Romans was the greatest of books according to Luther, and as far as he was concerned, the apostle Paul took precedence over this imposter, James.

Well, James is no imposter. And I chose this verse to give us a glimpse into the theological point that James was making in this section, and may I add... brilliantly.

I’d like to draw our attention to the very last word in the verse above: ALONE. For those who remember their English grammar, “alone” can be either an adjective or an adverb. Rather than fuss over the English translation, let’s go behind the scenes to the source, namely, the Greek.

The last two words that appear here in the Greek New Testament of this verse look like this: PISTEWS MONON. My point in transliterating these words is simply to comment on the endings of them. Note that their endings are different. The first word, PISTEWS, is the word for “faith.” This word ends with -EWS. The second word, MONON, is “alone, only.” This word ends with -ON.

What this means is that MONON (translated into English as “only” or “alone”) does not modify the noun, “faith.” And to really clear things up a bit, let me add that MONON is an adverb here. And like most adverbs, they “add to a verb” (hence, add-verb) additional meaning. Or, as we learn in grammar, adverbs modify verbs.

Unfortunately, there is no verb in the final phrase of this verse. But that is not at all uncommon in Greek. All one has to do is supply one. And not just anyone; the context will always supply it. And the verb we need to supply is right there in the same sentence, “is justified.” Now, watch what happens when we clear up this English translation to reflect the Greek... with precision:

“You see that a person is justified by works, and not only (justified) by faith.”

All I’ve done so far is clear up the translation. We still need an accurate interpretation. That is, we need to see how this fits into the overall presentation of James. And rather than providing a commentary of James chapter two, let me just make a few simple observations.

What James is demonstrating in this section of Scripture is that there is more than one kind of justification. (Note that I did NOT say that James is presenting more than one kind of SALVATION. Do not equate justification with salvation, something that Martin Luther should have known better than to do.)

James is reminding his readers that there is a justification by faith. And, there is ALSO a justification by works. The two should not be merged, as they are in some Calvinistic camps.

In a verse or two before 2:24, note this comment by James:
“Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered Isaac his son on the altar?”

(Note that James does not say, “Was not Abraham our descendant SAVED by works...)

Here, we see a justification BY WORKS. James is not talking about salvation. In fact, Abraham had turned to God for salvation many years before this event with his promised son. You will recall that Abraham was a man of God long before Isaac was born, and this event James is illustrating took place long after Abraham became a saved man.

The justification by works that James refers to is more or less a demonstration (a public expression, if you will) of one’s faith. To put it another way, justification BY WORKS is seen or made evident BEFORE MAN, whereas justification BY FAITH is “seen” only by Members of the Godhead.

In other words, you can claim to have faith and not have it, but you
can not claim to have works and not have them. Works we can see; faith can not be seen by people.
In fact, James illustrates this justification BY WORKS in the very next verse in this manner:

“And similarly, was not Rahab the prostitute also justified by works when she welcomed the messengers and sent them out by another way?”

Quite naturally, Rahab was already a saved person long before she “hid” the messengers. What James is simply saying here is that Rahab’s faith can be "SEEN" or made PUBLIC... by her actions/works.

James is well aware of both justifications. His conclusion in this section is simply that (justification by) faith is what we exercise TOWARD God. But that kind of faith can not help a brother or sister in need unless we also have (a justification by) works, which is exercised TOWARD man. To James, faith toward God can not feed a hungry brother or sister. Unless one is moved to action (justification/vindication by works), brothers and sisters might go hungry.

I note also that James identifies those in need as “brothers” and “sisters,” indicating that James is talking about how saved people should act toward fellow Christians. He is NOT writing on HOW TO BECOME a believer, but HOW TO BEHAVE as a believer. Really, Martin Luther should have known better.

I prefer the translation Vindicated over Justification. Works can vindicate a man’s faith. Our faith vindicates our relationship with Christ, Godward. Could it be related to our sanctification (growing toward Christlikeness, this is vindication toward God) which occurs via faith. First vindication is toward mankind, whereas the second vindication is toward God.

All of which is to say, James knows nothing of a Faith AND Works Justification (singular).
Please give the source of the material you posted so that we are able to check the author. And it is not two justifications.
 
And it is not two justifications.
I've heard of the jargon of two justifications. In James they talk about justification in the eyes of man, whereas Paul talks about justification in the eyes of God. I'm not sure that is what the 1st post if referring to.
 
I've heard of the jargon of two justifications. In James they talk about justification in the eyes of man, whereas Paul talks about justification in the eyes of God. I'm not sure that is what the 1st post if referring to.
It sounded like a lot of double speak to me.The Catholics believe in justification by faith and works. James clearly is not contradicting Paul or there would be contradictions in the Bible. He is clearly saying that yes we are justified by faith alone. But if a person says he has faith but there is no fruit that faith is dead (not salvific faith). If there is genuine faith it produces the fruit of the union with Christ---being transformed into the image of Christ. But plenty of unsaved people do good works so there is even more to his statement. He is telling his readers to live according to who they are in Christ.

We see this in Chapt 1- 2:13 just before he makes the statements concerning faith and works. He is saying as we see in the following verses, that faith is not alone. He is not saying that there are two justifications. One by works and the other by faith. James is called the wisdom chapter of the NT. Like Proverbs in the OT. It is wisdom literature, not primarily doctrinal.
 
I wish God had made this more easily understood instead of necessitating such a complex explanation that is difficult to grasp and thus susceptible to misinterpretation.
If you read my post, you would see that there are 2 Justifications:
1. Justified by faith (for by faith are you saved...)
2. Justification by works (feeding the hungry... give to the poor...)

1.Justified by faith is related to Salvation
2. Justification by works is related to Sanctification

Arial, I didn't read your replies. I am no longer going to read your posts or reply to them.
 
If you read my post, you would see that there are 2 Justifications:
1. Justified by faith (for by faith are you saved...)
2. Justification by works (feeding the hungry... give to the poor...)

1.Justified by faith is related to Salvation
2. Justification by works is related to Sanctification

Arial, I didn't read your replies. I am no longer going to read your posts or reply to them.
I don't really care if you read them or not and your responses never deal with them anyway. However for the sake of readers and lurkers, whenever you distort the truth, I will give the other side of the story, when I am able.

Good works in the Bible are not confined to outward good deeds, (the Catholic view of good works) but refer to an inner change as one begins to recognize sin against God to be those things that conflict with the NT imperatives. How we treat others, think about others, talk to others. In other words, through the washing of the word (the reading and study of it) we learn what righteousness is and the Holy Spirit works in us, more and more and over our entire lifetime, transforming us into the image of Christ. We gain knowledge of righteousness and are convicted in our hearts of unrighteousness. This is sanctification. Justification by works is not related to sanctification.

A person cannot be both justified by faith----which is a legal declaration that God has accepted the propitiation of Christ on the cross on our behalf and imputed his righteousness to us----and also be justified by works. They are antithetical to one another.

The book of James, that you reference in the OP, is filled with these imperatives. As are most of the epistles. Imperatives follow indicatives. "This is who Christ is and this is who you are in Christ." therefore, "This is what you are able to do and as a child of God, should do, as his image bearers," Without being placed in Christ and therefore justified, and that by faith in his person and work, there can be no sanctification because the flesh is unable to transform itself into the image of Christ, nor does it want to. Phillippians 2:12-13 Therefore, my beloved, as you have always obeyed, so now, not only as in my presence but much more in my absence, work out your own salvation with fear and trembling, for it is God who works in you, both to will and to work for his good pleasure.
 
If you read my post, you would see that there are 2 Justifications:
1. Justified by faith (for by faith are you saved...)
2. Justification by works (feeding the hungry... give to the poor...)
I read your post. I found it difficult to follow. Maybe my linguistic skills are the problem.

Justification is an act of God’s free grace, wherein he pardons all our sins, and accepts us positionally and judiciously as righteous in his sight.

When you speak of 2 justifications I ask, are you "saved" (going to heaven) because of #1 or #2 or #1+#2?
 
I read your post. I found it difficult to follow. Maybe my linguistic skills are the problem.

Justification is an act of God’s free grace, wherein he pardons all our sins, and accepts us positionally and judiciously as righteous in his sight.

When you speak of 2 justifications I ask, are you "saved" (going to heaven) because of #1 or #2 or #1+#2?
# 1 only.
 
# 1 only.


So why confuse issues? Positing two types of justification (faith for salvation, works for sanctification) misuses the term “justification.”

Justification is a singular forensic act—God’s declaration of righteousness by faith alone. James 2:24 uses “justified” (dikaioō) to mean “vindicated” or “shown righteous” before others, not a separate justification.

James contrasts dead faith (no works) with living faith (producing works), not two justifications. Linking “justification by works” to sanctification muddles categories. Sanctification is progressive growth in holiness (Philippians 2:12–13) enabled/empowered by Christ's Holy Spirit, not a public “justification".

Equating works-based “vindication” with sanctification risks implying works contribute to Chtusts work of salvation contra sola fide (Romans 4:2–5).
 
So why confuse issues? Positing two types of justification (faith for salvation, works for sanctification) misuses the term “justification.”

Justification is a singular forensic act—God’s declaration of righteousness by faith alone. James 2:24 uses “justified” (dikaioō) to mean “vindicated” or “shown righteous” before others, not a separate justification.

James contrasts dead faith (no works) with living faith (producing works), not two justifications. Linking “justification by works” to sanctification muddles categories. Sanctification is progressive growth in holiness (Philippians 2:12–13) enabled/empowered by Christ's Holy Spirit, not a public “justification".

Equating works-based “vindication” with sanctification risks implying works contribute to Chtusts work of salvation contra sola fide (Romans 4:2–5).
I can see why you are struggling with this. If you were able to consult the Greek Text you would see how many justification are in James 2.

ὁρᾶτε ὅτι ἐξ ἔργων δικαιοῦται ἄνθρωπος καὶ οὐκ ἐκ πίστεως μόνον...

μόνον is an adverb, adjective

The correct translation is:

You see then that a man is justified by works and not only justified by faith....

Check all your Greek sources and see the implications of the adverb.
 
...
 
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If you were able to consult the Greek Text you would see how many justification are in James 2.

Okay, let's do this.


I chose this verse to give us a glimpse into the theological point that James was making in this section—and, may I add, brilliantly.

James is not making the invented point that Eddie has shared here, nor is it brilliant. I observed this argument being made several months ago (September 2024) by amacias408, a self-identified Side-A "evangelical" Roman Catholic. Neither person has indicated where this argument originates, but I know that it's over 20 years old because someone on a Baptist discussion board referred to it almost verbatim in 2004.

Let's take a closer look.


The last two words that appear here in ... this verse look like this: pistews monon. My point in transliterating these words is simply to comment on the endings of them. Note that their endings are different. The first word, pistews, is the word for faith. ... The second word, monon, is "alone, only." ... What this means is that monon, translated into English as "only" or "alone," does not modify the noun "faith."

And to really clear things up a bit, let me add that monon is an adverb here—and, like most adverbs, they "add to a verb" ... additional meaning. Or, as we learn in grammar, adverbs modify verbs.

Unfortunately, there is no verb in the final phrase of this verse. But that is not at all uncommon in Greek. All one has to do is supply one. And not just any one; the context will always supply it. And the verb we need to supply is right there in the same sentence: "is justified."

Now, watch what happens when we clear up this English translation to reflect the Greek—with precision: "You see that a person is justified by works, and not only (justified) by faith."

1. To say that monon is an adverb is correct—but incomplete. In Greek, adjectives agree with the nouns they modify in gender, number, and case. The word pisteos (πίστεως) is genitive feminine singular, whereas monon (μόνον) is accusative neuter singular. So, they don't match. Therefore, monon is not functioning adjectivally here.

But Eddie stretches this point too far, into the realm of interpretive conjecture, by inserting a verb that is neither found nor implied in the text.

2. Duplicating the verb ‘is justified’ is untenable. Eddie is correct that there is no verb in the final clause of this sentence, but it's not only misleading and speculative to suggest that "all one has to do is supply one" but also a fallacious equivocation, as we shall see.

Yes, Greek texts can omit verbs due to ellipsis, relying on context to imply them, but Eddie's proposal—that we simply insert another "is justified"—is grammatically and syntactically questionable at best. In this text, the entire clause ouk ek pisteos monon (ἐκ πίστεως μόνον) is adverbial and completes the contrast to ek ergon (ἐξ ἔργων), all of which is covered under the verb dikaioutai (δικαιοῦται, is justified). Here's the structure:
  • βλέπετε ὅτι ἐξ ἔργων δικαιοῦται ἄνθρωπος καὶ οὐκ ἐκ πίστεως μόνον.
  • "You see that a person is justified by works and not by faith alone."
The main verb of the sentence is dikaioutai, and the phrase ouk ek pisteos monon is a prepositional unit modifying the manner of that justification. So, the phrase "not by faith alone" stands as the negated complement to "by works"—not as a separate clause needing its own verb. Inserting another "is justified" is not grammatically required and results in a misleading interpretation. There is no grammatical, syntactical, or contextual indication that the clause intends a duplicated or elliptical verb here, much less a different theological sense thereof.

3. Introducing a different theological sense of the same verb is invalid. So, that may be the worst part of his move: It is ultimately fallacious because he says it carries a different theological meaning (sanctification and salvation). There is no indication in the syntax that the second clause is to be understood with a different theological sense of justification, especially one not already stated in the context. To assert the point clearly: The move to interpret the same Greek verb in two different theological senses within the same clause without any contextual justification is a textbook example of the fallacy of equivocation.

Eddie treats dikaioutai as meaning, on the one hand, "justified by works" as relating to sanctification and, on the other hand, "not only [justified] by faith" as relating to salvation. This illegitimately assigns two different senses to the same verb in the same sentence without any linguistic or contextual cue indicating a semantic shift. That is classic equivocation.

If James had intended to shift categories, he would not have used the same verb in the same construction without qualification. Eddie's suggestion is not how theological distinctions are made in scripture. Context governs meaning, and in the second chapter of James the context is the nature of salvific faith (v. 14), not the character of sanctification.

Additionally, in Reformed theology, justification and sanctification are distinct but inseparable benefits of union with Christ—not two justifications. The contrast James makes is not between two justifications but between two claims to justification, one real and one false—a living faith evidenced by works versus a profession of faith unaccompanied by works. There is one kind of justification in view here—the demonstrable kind—where faith is shown to be genuine by the fruit it bears.

Not only that but Paul and James are speaking to different questions, not different justifications. Paul asks how a sinner is justified before God (by faith, apart from works), and James asks what kind of faith actually justifies (one that produces works). Reformed theology has long recognized that James uses justification in a demonstrative sense while Paul uses it in a forensic sense.

4. The context of James 2:14-26 is salvation, not sanctification. Finally, nothing in our text indicates a focus on sanctification. Instead, the question at hand is, "Can a dead faith save a person?" (v. 14). The issue is salvation, and the faith in question is a mere profession ("if someone claims to have faith but does not have works"). To argue that James is speaking of sanctification or a second justification-by-works later in the Christian life is to smuggle a theological category into the text that is not there.

James is refuting empty, fruitless "faith" as presumptuous. He argues that true saving faith manifests itself in works. Abraham's faith was completed by his works (v. 22), not because works were added to faith as a second justification but because they proved the reality of what he already believed (cf. Gen 15:6).

Conclusion

The "two justifications" interpretation of James 2:24 is grammatically unjustified (no second verb or syntactical marker of ellipsis), exegetically unsound (the context is about what kind of faith saves, not sanctification), theologically foreign to the text (uses justification with conflicting senses in the same clause), and simply unnecessary (as Reformed theology already properly accounts for the role of works as evidential and fruitful).

We still need an accurate interpretation.

If I may attempt a paraphrase of James 2:24, it would read like this: "You can see by their works that a person is justified. A faith that is fruitless does not justify anyone."



… Luther called the epistle of James an "epistola straminea." I don’t know an ounce of German, but I do know how most translate this expression: an “epistle of straw.”

You don't need to know German—because that phrase is Latin.


I would like to draw our attention to the very last word in the verse above: ALONE. For those who remember their English grammar, "alone" can be either an adjective or an adverb.

This is overly simplistic and inaccurate. Adverbs do not only modify verbs; they also modify adjectives, other adverbs, clauses, or entire sentences. The claim that adverbs exclusively "add to a verb" is elementary school grammar and not linguistically robust. For example:
  • "Only Jesus saves." -- modifies the subject.
  • "He runs only on weekends." -- modifies the prepositional phrase.
  • "She only believes." -- modifies the verb.
 
.
Gen 4:2-5 . . Now Abel kept flocks, and Cain worked the soil. In the course of
time Cain brought some of the fruits of the soil as an offering to The Lord. But Abel
brought fat portions from some of the firstborn of his flock. The Lord looked with
favor on Abel and his offering, but on Cain and his offering he did not look with
favor.

Well it's not too difficult to figure out why God rejected both Cain and his gift.

Gen 4:6 . . If you do what is right, will you not be accepted?

Cain believed in a supreme being, and his gift was appropriate for a guy who
worked the land for a living. However, Cain's conduct was unacceptable, viz: Cain
had a faith but he wasn't validating his faith with appropriate ways.

Cain's situation is well illustrated by Isa 1:11-20. Moses' people were offering all
the covenanted sacrifices, they were praying up a storm, and observing all the God
given feasts and holy days. He rejected all of it, even though He himself required it,
because the people's personal conduct was unbecoming for folks professing belief in
the one true supreme being, viz: their ways failed to validate their belief.
_
 
Violation of CCAM Forums Rules & Guidelines (2.1) and (2.2).
The word pisteos (πίστεως) is genitive feminine singular, whereas monon (μόνον) is accusative neuter singular.
1. To say that monon is an adverb is correct—but incomplete. In Greek, adjectives agree with the nouns they modify in gender, number, and case. The word pisteos (πίστεως) is genitive feminine singular, whereas monon (μόνον) is accusative neuter singular. So, they don't match. Therefore, monon is not functioning adjectivally here.
DialecticSkeptic, [MOD EDIT: Rules-violating content removed.] you make too many mistakes, even making statements that are false. You [MOD EDIT: Rules-violating content removed.] tried to parse monon, but this is your biggest error in this short post.

Notice what you say "whereas monon (μόνον) is accusative neuter singular." I have been reading Greek for 35 years, and I have never, and I mean never, run across an adverb that has case. You call an adverb accusative, this in and of itself, tells me you are not a Greek student. [MOD EDIT: Rules-violating content removed.]

2. Duplicating the verb ‘is justified’ is untenable. Eddie is correct that there is no verb in the final clause of this sentence, but it's not only misleading and speculative to suggest that "all one has to do is supply one" but also a fallacious equivocation, as we shall see.
That is simply not true. This is something you would have known had you had formal Greek training. Tell me, what does monon modify? I am even going to help you here. Look for a verbal. I am not going to show the rest of your mistakes, [MOD EDIT: Rules-violating content removed.].

[MOD EDIT: Rules-violating content removed.]
 
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You are boring me. You should remove my post so nobody else sees it. It might give other members the right impression about you. [Content deleted by moderator for rules violation.]
Well, that comment didn't seem appropriate/germane.
 
Notice what you say: "whereas monon (μόνον) is accusative neuter singular." I have been reading Greek for 35 years, and I have never, and I mean never, run across an adverb that has case. You call an adverb accusative. This, in and of itself, tells me you are not a Greek student.

Eddie is confusing adverbial usage with morphological form.
  • Form (morphology): μόνον is the accusative neuter singular form of the adjective μόνος.
  • In Greek, adjectives are declined (i.e., change form) for gender, number, and case.
  • Function (syntax): In James 2:24, μόνον is functioning adverbially.
  • This is because it's modifying a verb, δικαιοῦται (not a noun, which would be the role of an adjective).
As far as I understand it—and I don't claim to be a Greek scholar—neuter accusative singular adjectives functioning adverbially is a well-established grammatical phenomenon in Koine Greek. I thought it was one of the most basic idioms in Koine Greek and exactly what competent grammarians teach. For example, A. T. Robertson states, "The neuter accusative singular and plural of adjectives continue to be used adverbially" (source). Herbert W. Smyth calls the adverbial use of neuter accusative adjectives "very common" (source). Daniel B. Wallace (Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics) has a section on the adverbial use of the adjective, which he begins by saying (emphasis mine),

The adjective is sometimes used in the place of an adverb. Some of the uses are analogous to colloquial English, such as "I am doing good," or "Come here quick!" Other, more frequent, instances involve idiomatic uses of the adjective, such as the accusative adjective in the neuter used adverbially.

This construction is everywhere in Koine Greek, like καλῶς (from καλός), or ἀληθῶς (from ἀληθής), or μόνον (from μόνος), and so on. They're all adjective forms functioning as adverbs in context. Either Eddie has never come across this in 35 years of reading Greek, or he was confusing adverbial usage with morphological form—either of which should prompt some reflection.
 
Gee, I was slow learning how to tie me shoes. I'll never know the intricacies of Greek as only a Geek and know Greek.

The point is that he criticized me for saying μόνον is accusative neuter singular because, in 35 years, he has "never run across an adverb that has case"—which means he didn't recognize it's an adjective (functioning adverbially).
 
Gee, I was slow learning how to tie me shoes. I'll never know the intricacies of Greek as only a Geek and know Greek.
Well, you've been born again. Maybe, if it was recently enough, you can learn a new language by use!
 
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