Oh come on. Look up condescending and see if the definition doesn’t fit. I should save this post and put it in my scrapbook of irony. Anyway, this is getting silly and pointless.
So, I had posed a very specific question to this forum, which was essentially this:
- If Christ died for the sins of every single person, then why do unbelievers end up enduring the punishment of hell?
If Christ bore upon the cross the penalty for all the sins of unbelievers, then there would be no penalty for them to bear—right? After all, the currency of the cross was sufficient to cover the debt owed by their guilt (expiation) and satisfy God's just wrath (propitiation), which is what 1 John 2:2 reveals, for example. "It is finished," he cried out. His atoning sacrifice was not deficient in any way.
And yet unbelievers do end up enduring the punishment of hell. Why?
"Although Christ paid their debt," many Christians will reply, "they still have to accept it." But that logic just doesn't hold up. Let us suppose that I owe my father $1,000, and let's also suppose that my brother voluntarily took the debt as his own and then paid it in full. (Please observe that it wasn't something he offered, but rather something he did. Look at the language of 1 John 2:2 and notice that it doesn't say Christ "could be" the atoning sacrifice for sins. The atonement was accomplished.)
Given this scenario, what if I don't accept what my brother did? Does my refusal to accept it change any of the facts? No, it does not. Even if I don't accept it, he nevertheless took the debt as his own and discharged it. That debt is no longer mine or even exists.
"Well, by not accepting it," one might say, "you are effectively insisting that you pay it yourself." But, once again, the logic just doesn't hold. If I went to my father and handed him $1,000, he would rightfully ask, "What's this for?"
"My debt," I would reply.
"What debt?" he would ask. "You don't owe me anything. I mean, your brother did, but he paid it completely."
How can I owe a debt that I don't have and doesn't even exist?
None of this makes any sense unless I still have a debt of some kind. And I still have a debt of some kind only if my brother didn't take it as his own and discharge it, or if he assumed only a portion of the debt and discharged that, leaving the rest in my name and still owing. Is there anyone for whom Christ did not die? No, we are told that he died for every single person. Then he must have assumed and discharged only a portion of everyone's debt—in which case everyone is in very grave trouble, believers included, because we still have some sins on the books which remain ours and unpaid.
Now, along comes a forum member, @Mercy_Shown—someone who believes that Jesus died for every single person—who tells us that unbelievers endure the punishment of hell not for their sins, because Jesus paid for those on the cross, but rather for having loved the darkness more than the light.
"But that is sin," I replied (
here), because loving darkness more than light disobeys not only the gospel of our Lord Jesus (2 Thess 1:8) but also fundamentally the greatest commandment, and disobeying God is sin, by definition. This is why Paul can identify light as a metaphor for righteousness—after all, "God is light" (1 John 1:5)—and darkness as a metaphor for lawlessness (i.e., sin). He also tells us that with flaming fire God will mete out punishment on those who are guilty of sin. (But if Christ is the atoning sacrifice for the sins of every single person without exception, then is anyone guilty of sin?)
All of this is contrary to what
@Mercy_Shown has been arguing up to this point, and it also sets up a glaring contradiction. Unbelievers endure the punishment of hell because they loved darkness more than light, which is a sin. And yet Christ died for all the sins of unbelievers, including this one—right? Yes, he tells us.
Wait, then why do they endure the punishment of hell?
We are right back at square one.
@Mercy_Shown has not actually answered the question yet, but his beliefs have certainly amplified why it's such a difficult question for those committed to the idea that Christ died for all the sins of every single person. Maybe he could try arguing that loving darkness more than light doesn't disobey the gospel of our Lord Jesus and doesn't disobey the greatest commandment (and therefore isn't a sin), but I just can't see that meeting with any success. Or perhaps he could try arguing that hell is not punishment, but that might be even less successful.
We are left with the question that was posed at the very beginning, still needing an answer:
- If Christ died for the sins of every single person, then why do unbelievers end up enduring the punishment of hell?
If their wicked deeds, evil thoughts, shameful lusts, love of darkness, and unbelief are all sin—and they are—and if Christ fully paid the penalty for all their sin, such that his atoning sacrifice removed their guilt and satisfied God's just wrath—which
@Mercy_Shown believes—then why are unbelievers enduring the punishment of hell?