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The New Testament refers to Jesus as "God"

You've failed miserably at basic interpretation.

This verse has been used in debates about Jesus' divinity. Some suggest that Jesus is denying He is God. Others think that Jesus is trying to reveal to the man that He is God. (BibleRef: Mark 10:18).​

Context is key:
1). The rich man asked Jesus Christ: "What good thing he must do to have eternal life?" (Matthew 19:16, Mark 10:17, Luke 18:18).

2). Jesus Christ asked him a question: "Why you want me to call you good?" (Matthew 19:17, Mark 10:18, Luke 18:19). You don't believe me, then look it up in the Greek. Obviously, Jesus Christ isn't going to call any man good except for God alone.

a). No answer from the rich man.​
b). Jesus answered the question. “No one is good except God alone."​

3). In other words, Jesus Christ is comparing the rich man's goodness with God's goodness.

a). Jesus Christ questioned the rich man's goodness by the commandments (Matthew 19:18-19, Mark 10:19, Luke 18:20).​
b). But the rich man lacked one good thing, which is, to sell all his possessions and give it to the poor (Matthew 19:20-21, Mark 10:21, Luke 18:22).​

Nowhere in the isolated verse from its context says anything about the Son denying being good and denying being God. Back to the drawing board for you. Your plan A has failed and time for plan B.
God is a different person from Jesus all over the Bible. Jesus said the Father is the only true God in John 17:1-3 and Jesus is the one He sent. Jesus' God is not Himself, but the Father is God Himself. When Jesus said there is none good except God alone then it refers to the Father. Jesus not only denied being God, but also denied being objectively or perfectly good.

I know you will just argue about this because you have something to lose at stake, but denials about scripture twisting do not undo what Jesus plainly said.
 
The rich man didn't call Jesus Christ "good teacher" according to the Greek text.
Jesus Christ didn't say, "Why call me good" according to the Greek text.

Your interpretation and your pretexting verse doesn't fit the context of (Matthew 19:20-21, Mark 10:21, Luke 18:22).
It refers to objective goodness, that's what you seem to not be understanding. There are also "evil people who know how to give good gifts" and "good and faithful servants." It doesn't mean they become God because they have something good about them. God, on the other hand, is light and in Him is no darkness at all.
 
God is a different person from Jesus all over the Bible. Jesus said the Father is the only true God in John 17:1-3 and Jesus is the one He sent. Jesus' God is not Himself, but the Father is God Himself. When Jesus said there is none good except God alone then it refers to the Father. Jesus not only denied being God, but also denied being objectively or perfectly good.

I know you will just argue about this because you have something to lose at stake, but denials about scripture twisting do not undo what Jesus plainly said.

That's your plan B? You need something new and better than John 17:3. We already discussed that Jesus Christ is the true God. Maybe that's your way of reinforcing yourself or indoctrinating yourself. The fact is, if Jesus Christ is God was debunked, that would change the whole Christendom's Christological position, and that hasn't happened for about 2,000 years or less. You and I are not qualified. You're just some random internet poster that likes hanging out in CCAM or other apologetics platforms.
 
John 5:41
I do not accept (praise,worship, glory) from human beings,

The same Greek word for 'glory' in John 5:41 is used just a few verses later in John 5:44. The Lord Jesus was not seeking their glory/praise in the way they did amongst themselves. He did so always in honor of the Father, they didn't.
In terms of you not giving 'glory' to the Lord Jesus, that is your loss because the Bible teaches this is properly done unto Him (2 Timothy 4:18; 2 Peter 3:18; Revelation 1:6).
 
Yep. Still no list and no survey.

Instead, he is throwing out passage after passage in an attempt to hide from the absurdity of what he affirmed.

This isn't surprising.
 
The same Greek word for 'glory' in John 5:41 is used just a few verses later in John 5:44. The Lord Jesus was not seeking their glory/praise in the way they did amongst themselves. He did so always in honor of the Father, they didn't.
In terms of you not giving 'glory' to the Lord Jesus, that is your loss because the Bible teaches this is properly done unto Him (2 Timothy 4:18; 2 Peter 3:18; Revelation 1:6).
Psalm 91:14
“Because he loves me,” says (the Lord / Yahwah,) “I will rescue him; I will protect him, for he acknowledges my name.

2 Timothy 4:18
(The Lord / Yahwah) will rescue me from every evil attack and will bring me safely to his heavenly kingdom. To Him be glory for ever and ever. Amen.

Yahshua did not come to be worshiped by mankind, nor did he come to introduce Paganism.
 

Psalm 110.​

1 Yahwah said to my lord:​

“Sit at my right hand
until I make your enemies
a footstool for your feet.”

Psalm 110:1 is quoted in Acts 2:34-35.
Peter already applied "Lord" unto Jesus moments earlier in Acts 2:21 in that He is YHWH (cf. Joel 2:32 - 3:5 in the LXX).
 
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That's your plan B? You need something new and better than John 17:3. We already discussed that Jesus Christ is the true God. Maybe that's your way of reinforcing yourself or indoctrinating yourself.
We didn't discuss anything about Jesus being the true God. You made a claim then I debunked it using scripture. Perhaps we aren't seeing our interactions the same way. You are the one spreading heresies and I am the one correcting you.

The fact is, if Jesus Christ is God was debunked, that would change the whole Christendom's Christological position, and that hasn't happened for about 2,000 years or less.
Unitarianism happened with God, Jesus, the apostles, and it's all canonized in the Bible. Your idol was invented after the beginning of the church. Actually, many different sects began popping up. Some survived, some didn't, but what sets trinitarianism apart is that they just happened to be lucky enough to get their theology codified into a state-sanctioned religion. Now it's shrinking. By all accounts, what the world perceives as "Christianity" is actually trinitarianism. Your numbers are dwindling. I guess in a few more decades you people will be in the shadows.

You and I are not qualified. You're just some random internet poster that likes hanging out in CCAM or other apologetics platforms.
What are we not qualified for?
 
I am a man and Jesus is a man therefore Jesus isn't God.

You do not fully know the hearts of all people.
Only God does (1 Kings 8:39).

Jesus fully knows the hearts of all people which proves He is God (Revelation 2:23).

Next time, think more carefully before making a comparison between you and Jesus.
Heretics should know better.
 
You do not fully know the hearts of all people.
Only God does (1 Kings 8:39).
Correct God does know the hearts of all people. Jesus is not God.
Jesus fully knows the hearts of all people which proves He is God (Revelation 2:23).
(edit by admin) It doesn't say he "knows the hearts of all people." It says he searches hearts.
Next time, think more carefully before making a comparison between you and Jesus.
Heretics should know better.
You failed miserably to present a valid or coherent argument. (edit by admin)
 
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Liar. It doesn't say he "knows the hearts of all people." It says he searches hearts.

So according to your heresy that must mean God doesn't know the heart of all people according to Jeremiah 17:10 - He just searches them without knowing them!

The heresy of those who deny the Lord Jesus is God is smashed again.
 
So according to your heresy that must mean God doesn't know the heart of all people according to Jeremiah 17:10 - He just searches them without knowing them!

The heresy of those who deny the Lord Jesus is God is smashed again.
You made a claim about what the verse says and it doesn't say that. . (edit by admin)
 
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You made a claim about what the verse says and it doesn't say that. Own it, liar.

That He is able to search the hearts of all means He knows the hearts of all.

Applies to both Jeremiah 17:10 and Revelation 2:23.

This is what the BDAG (3rd Edition) reads when citing Revelation 2:23, "in an all-inclusive sense: said of God or Christ's awareness about the inner life of humans" (kardia, page 508).

Thanks for making this easy for me.
 
Trinitarianism destroyed after not having a single example of Jesus being prayed to in the entire Bible. That isn't God.


The only one in the entire Bible is God who knows everyone's hearts. The same is never said of Jesus. The deity of Jesus has been debunked.

Acts 1
24And they prayed, “Lord, You know everyone’s heart. Show us which of these two You have chosen
 
Jesus fully knows the hearts of all people which proves He is God (Revelation 2:23).
Just so the readers are aware of Fred's lies, he claims "Jesus fully knows the hearts of all people which proves He is God" and cited Revelation 2:23. Here's what Revelation 2:23 says.

Revelation 2:23 does not say anything about Jesus fully knowing the hearts of all people.

23Then I will strike her children dead, and all the churches will know that I am the One who searches minds and hearts, and I will repay each of you according to your deeds.​
edit by mod
 
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