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The Book of Revelation: Amillennial/idealist Interpretive Method

Trying to delete the smiling face above but he does not want to leave...???
 
The rules of exegesis are extraordinarily uniform regardless of one's eschatological orientation and they begin with reading the words in the Bible exactly as written with the normal meaning of the words as used in ordinary conversation unless there is something in the text providing a reason for doing otherwise. Included among the basic precepts of exegesis is the rule scripture is the first best interpreter of scripture. The op references this when it applies references outside of Revelation as a means of understanding the millennium and appeals to how Revelation uses symbols and figures of speech found elsewhere, like the OT prophets.
Uniform according to whole as that seen the temporal. . . along with the eternal unseen a good mix.

Part of the rules are without parables the Holy Spirit of God spoke not.

In that way using the prescription below . Not if it say is this is a parable rightly divide it with no knowledge how. But while we are looking at the literature then when we do the mixing or comparing

2 Corinthians 4: 18 While we look not at the things which are seen, but at the things which are not seen: for the things which are seen are temporal; but the things which are not seen are eternal.

Parables teach us how to walk after the unseen things of God .

In that sense the whole Bible is a parable Mixing the temporal literal historical with the spiritual unseen eternal. No mix no gospel

How else could he teach us the walk by faith the unseen spiritual things of God if not with parables. . caled prophecy ?
 
Uniform according to whole as that seen the temporal. . . along with the eternal unseen a good mix.
Re-read that.

It is incomprehensible.
Part of the rules are without parables the Holy Spirit of God spoke not.
No, they are not.
In that way using the prescription below . Not if it say is this is a parable rightly divide it with no knowledge how. But while we are looking at the literature then when we do the mixing or comparing

2 Corinthians 4: 18 While we look not at the things which are seen, but at the things which are not seen: for the things which are seen are temporal; but the things which are not seen are eternal.
If exegetical precepts were correctly applied that verse 1) would not be proof-texted and 2) not made to say things it does not say.

Can you see the words written in your Bible?
Parables teach us how to walk after the unseen things of God .
Yes, they do. So too do all the words in the Bible in all the literary forms found in the Bible and the rules of exegesis help us read them all, understand them all, and apply them - even when it comes to millennial views.
In that sense the whole Bible is a parable Mixing the temporal literal historical with the spiritual unseen eternal. No mix no gospel
How is that specifically relevant to this specific op?
How else could he teach us the walk by faith the unseen spiritual things of God if not with parables. . caled prophecy ?
How is that specifically relevant to this specific op?



I asked you to tell me what knowledge and/or familiarity with Amillennialism or Idealism you have, and I do not read an answer.
 
The scriptures are one cohesive whole, no one scripture is given to us in a vacuum. We need all of them to come unto the knowledge of the truth, which most cannot find, for they seek for truth from extra-biblical sources. Shame on them ~ confusion shall dwell with them
This statement from you would ring more true if you had not mentioned that you yourself lean upon Augustine for many of your eschatological views. Augustine is also an "extra-biblical source".
So, Daniel was not an historian, telling us about the past before him, but a prophet foretelling of the end of this world that what shall come to past at the last days.
Daniel foretold events, all of which have become a fulfilled history lesson to us in our day. Since Peter said that "the end of all things is at hand" in his own days of writing 1 Peter 4:7, that "end" came and went almost 2,000 years ago.
 
This statement from you would ring more true if you had not mentioned that you yourself lean upon Augustine for many of your eschatological views. Augustine is also an "extra-biblical source".
I do not lean upon Augustine, though his exposition of Revelation twenty is spot on! I believe it before I ever read his article of Revelation 20.
Daniel foretold events, all of which have become a fulfilled history lesson to us in our day. Since Peter said that "the end of all things is at hand" in his own days of writing 1 Peter 4:7, that "end" came and went almost 2,000 years ago.
Keep talking and you soon will be reclassified as a full blown preteriast.

I can go to Matthew 24 and prove you so wrong, if you would like to go there, start a thread on Matthew 24 and 25, since it is one complete discourse, addressing one main subject.
 
Re-read that.

It is incomprehensible.
Sorry my writing skills suffer. I was trying to introduce the tool given to help us walk by faith (the unseen) eternal things .Mixing the things seen the tempoal dying mankind to the unseen things of the mysteries made known through parables. I would call the prescription that is given the golden measure of faith. Gold representing the unseen work of God (2 Corinthians 4:18 ). Gold is the only corrupted rudiment of this world that God puts his good stamp of approval

Genesis 2:11 The name of the first is Pison: that is it which compasseth the whole land of Havilah, where there is gold;And the gold of that land is good: there is bdellium and the onyx stone.

A good example that can help define the kind of language called hidden manna in Revaltion 2;17

God knowing beforehand that when Moses died men would go back to the golden calf drinking literal blood . God had already commanded them to pour it out and cover it with lifeless spiritless dust. Our living God knew rather than the writen word when Moses died it would be golden calf men who venerate each other dying flesh refusing to believe in a God not seen revealed by words written on stone

After Moses completed the book of God's loving law he put it on the side of the golden ark . It must first sought after as entering the kingdom enter into giving us a desire to see God not seen it (the gospel as it is written) revealed the hidden manna on the inside the golden measure of faith. the the literal what the eyes see the temporal had no understanding . real gold to one. . fools gold to another .Study the book let him reveal the glory .

Deuteronomy 31:24-29 And it came to pass, when Moses had made an end of writing the words of this law in a book, until they were finished, That Moses commanded the Levites, which bare the ark of the covenant of the Lord, saying, Take this book of the law, and put it in the side of the ark of the covenant of the Lord your God, that it may be there for a witness against thee. For I know thy rebellion, and thy stiff neck: behold, while I am yet alive with you this day, ye have been rebellious against the Lord; and how much more after my death? Gather unto me all the elders of your tribes, and your officers, that I may speak these words in their ears, and call heaven and earth to record For I know that after my death ye will utterly corrupt yourselves, and turn aside from the way which I have commanded you; and evil will befall you in the latter days; because ye will do evil in the sight of the Lord, to provoke him to anger through the work of your hands
 
Sorry my writing skills suffer. I was trying to introduce the tool given to help us walk by faith (the unseen) eternal things .Mixing the things seen the tempoal dying mankind to the unseen things of the mysteries made known through parables. I would call the prescription that is given the golden measure of faith. Gold representing the unseen work of God (2 Corinthians 4:18 ). Gold is the only corrupted rudiment of this world that God puts his good stamp of approval

Genesis 2:11 The name of the first is Pison: that is it which compasseth the whole land of Havilah, where there is gold;And the gold of that land is good: there is bdellium and the onyx stone.

A good example that can help define the kind of language called hidden manna in Revaltion 2;17

God knowing beforehand that when Moses died men would go back to the golden calf drinking literal blood . God had already commanded them to pour it out and cover it with lifeless spiritless dust. Our living God knew rather than the writen word when Moses died it would be golden calf men who venerate each other dying flesh refusing to believe in a God not seen revealed by words written on stone

After Moses completed the book of God's loving law he put it on the side of the golden ark . It must first sought after as entering the kingdom enter into giving us a desire to see God not seen it (the gospel as it is written) revealed the hidden manna on the inside the golden measure of faith. the the literal what the eyes see the temporal had no understanding . real gold to one. . fools gold to another .Study the book let him reveal the glory .

Deuteronomy 31:24-29 And it came to pass, when Moses had made an end of writing the words of this law in a book, until they were finished, That Moses commanded the Levites, which bare the ark of the covenant of the Lord, saying, Take this book of the law, and put it in the side of the ark of the covenant of the Lord your God, that it may be there for a witness against thee. For I know thy rebellion, and thy stiff neck: behold, while I am yet alive with you this day, ye have been rebellious against the Lord; and how much more after my death? Gather unto me all the elders of your tribes, and your officers, that I may speak these words in their ears, and call heaven and earth to record For I know that after my death ye will utterly corrupt yourselves, and turn aside from the way which I have commanded you; and evil will befall you in the latter days; because ye will do evil in the sight of the Lord, to provoke him to anger through the work of your hands
What is the subject of this op?
 
I do not lean upon Augustine, though his exposition of Revelation twenty is spot on! I believe it before I ever read his article of Revelation 20.
And I do not have to lean upon extra-biblical sources such as Josephus, Tacitus, Seneca, etc, although their descriptions of historical events matching scripture content are "spot on".
Keep talking and you soon will be reclassified as a full blown preteriast.
I've never understood the compulsion to classify everyone into one set group or another. Generalizations (which we all do on occasion) often do an injustice to the wide variations we all have when it comes to understanding scripture. And I'm not sure why my one reference to a clear statement by Peter about "the end of all things" being "at hand" for the time then present should seem to be offensive to you. It's a plain statement.
I can go to Matthew 24 and prove you so wrong, if you would like to go there, start a thread on Matthew 24 and 25, since it is one complete discourse, addressing one main subject.
But I agree that Matthew 24 is all one main subject, and have told you so before on our other website. All of it was fulfilled back in the first century generation. And you and I have gone back and forth about the definition of "this generation" before, with you being unable to explain why Christ "suffering many things" and being "rejected of this generation" did not mean the first-century generation of Jews who did not receive Him when He came among them as the incarnate Son of God.

With your Amil-Idealist interpretive viewpoint, you have painted yourself into a corner where virtually nothing in scripture can be understood in a literalistic, physical sense. This Amil-Idealist viewpoint is only the ditch on the opposite side of the road where Pre-mil-disp. teaching defines virtually everything in a literal sense, with hardly any symbolism acknowledged for prophecy. I'd rather not fall into either extreme. It's supposed to be a balanced approach to getting the sense of scripture.
 
But you are AGAIN wrong because if a poster wants to post for the purpose of being critiqued by the English professor as though it were an assignment he had given them they have liberty to do so as long as they do not violate the tos and it is not advice; it is a god-forsaken attempt to control others' posts.


The simple fact is I have provided plenty of valid, op-relevant content, none of it is being discussed, and deliberate choices are being made not to do so. That is ALL on you. I take this an indication you do not want to discuss what I bring to this conversation. That's okay with me, but the derogatory personal comments violate the tos and should cease.
This post itself is entirely directed at the OP (original poster), and as such, contains derogatory personal comments about them. And it is off topic. Your posts up to this point have been about the use of the word "method". You are right, I will not engage with those posts nor should I. If you want to post on the subject of any of the "mils" or interpretive categories, I may engage with those posts. But anymore like this and they will be deleted. All that is behind us and over.
 
I would agree that all covenants are under an "umbrella" of God's intent to redeem a people for Himself. It has been an incremental process over the millennia, with a fixed culmination point at which God will have finally purified this planet entirely of the presence of evil in all its forms. It will not just be a restored Edenic condition, but even better, in that any possibility of it falling again into rebellion and separation will be no more.
I agree it is better than the original creation in which we were created corruptible but not yet corrupt. In the new heaven and earth Christ has attained for us incorruptibility and immortality, and the creation itself, and there will be nothing corrupt in it to corrupt us. Impossible to imagine, but I persevere by His power and preservation, towards Home.
Unfortunately, the very scriptural word "dispensation" has been appropriated by an entire system that has hijacked the word and bent it to mean something else entirely.
Agreed.
 
Idealism tends to have symbolism and metaphor define everything. A literalistic meaning is almost totally lost. In other words, it tends to fall in the opposite ditch than premil-dispensational teaching which tends to erase anything symbolic in scripture and interpret all things in literal terms. The truth lies in a balance between both metaphor and literal.
Not precisely true. Idealism says they are literal events depicted in symbolic form. And they see the visions including the judgements not as chronological and separate but as repeated patterns occurring throughout the time period of Christ's resurrection and second coming, seen from different perspectives, culminating in His return and judgement and the new heaven and new earth.
 
I would agree that all covenants are under an "umbrella" of God's intent to redeem a people for Himself. It has been an incremental process over the millennia, with a fixed culmination point at which God will have finally purified this planet entirely of the presence of evil in all its forms. It will not just be a restored Edenic condition, but even better, in that any possibility of it falling again into rebellion and separation will be no more.
I'm curious. That statement about God finally purifying the planet entirely is more of a Postmillennial Dominionist point of view. I'm wondering if @Arial shares the perspective 3R has posted (Post #70 isn't clear).
Idealism tends to have symbolism and metaphor define everything. A literalistic meaning is almost totally lost. In other words, it tends to fall in the opposite ditch than premil-dispensational teaching which tends to erase anything symbolic in scripture and interpret all things in literal terms. The truth lies in a balance between both metaphor and literal.
Does that apply to the purifying of the planet? Is the purification literal or symbolic?

Would you say you are more Idealist or more Amillennial?
 
But I agree that Matthew 24 is all one main subject, and have told you so before on our other website. All of it was fulfilled back in the first century generation. And you and I have gone back and forth about the definition of "this generation" before, with you being unable to explain why Christ "suffering many things" and being "rejected of this generation" did not mean the first-century generation of Jews who did not receive Him when He came among them as the incarnate Son of God.
Really........ based who's determination? Yours?

Okay~coming up a post on "This generation"~we will let others judge, not just you.

Put on your armor my friend.
 
Very briefly~I'll speak only for myself other Idealist can speak for themselves. Let me start with precepts. Precepts and rules are almost identical

The only rule used by me, is sola scriptura.
Let me make sure I am understanding that correctly.

Part 1:

Correctly understood, sola scriptura asserts the Bible is correct and authoritative pertaining to all it states, sufficient for understanding faith and Christian practice, and all truth necessary for understanding salvation and the Christian life can be found therein.

Is that what you mean by "sola scriptura"?

I ask because sola scriptura makes no claims specifically about eschatology or millennialism beyond "understanding faith and the Christian life." Sola scriptura would not apply specifically to the matter of millennialism.

Part 2:

We were discussing the common principles, precepts, and practices of (sound) exegesis. Exegesis stems from, or is a product of, the sola scriptura belief scripture is correct and authoritative to all that it speaks. As I have already posted, one of the first, most basic, fundamental, and/or foundational "rules" in exegesis is to read the text of (correct and authoritative) scripture as written with the normal meaning of words in their ordinary usage unless there is reason in the text giving reason to do otherwise.

When you, as an Idealist applying Idealism to the text, ever read the text of scripture exactly as written.....?

Another basic, commonly shared rule of exegesis is to understand the original intent of the author and how the original first century reader would have understood the text.

Do you, as an Idealist applying Idealism to the text, seek first to understand what is written as originally intended and understood when written?
I trust God's word through the Spirit of God to give me the interpretation of his word
Do you know any Christian here in this thread who claims not to do that?
I care less about men like Josephus....
How is that relevant to this op?
Revelation is a book of highly symbolic language
Yep. I do not know anyone who disagrees with that sentence.

Do you think John, the author of the book understood the symbols? Do you think the original readers of Revelation understood the symbols?
 
Not precisely true. Idealism says they are literal events depicted in symbolic form.
In my experience conversing with RB, (who claims the position of an Amil-Idealist) the exact opposite seems to be true. Literal terms are mainly used to depict symbolic, spiritual realities in the way he explains prophetic passages. And please jump in here, @RB, if I am presenting your position in error. I don't mean to be talking behind your back on this. And also granted, RB may not be an example of the typical Amil-Idealist, for all I know.

This is just one example he and I have exchanged views on before: the context of Matthew 24:19-20 saying, "Woe unto them that are with child, and to them that give suck in those days! But pray ye that your flight be not in the winter, neither on the sabbath day..." According to RB's Idealist understanding of this passage, this "flight" is a spiritual one of believers leaving churches in doctrinal error who have departed from the truth. The "winter" is to be understood as a spiritually stagnant period of the church's growth. I never could get the Idealist understanding of what a literal nursing or pregnant woman was supposed to actually be in symbolic terms. But the Idealist pattern RB adopts seems to take clearly literal terms and have them morphed into symbolic, spiritual realities of some sort.
Does that apply to the purifying of the planet? Is the purification literal or symbolic?
I am not speaking of the NHNE, which was already put in place back in AD 70. The conditions in both heaven and earth appreciably changed back then, as Hebrews 12:26 said God had "NOW" promised to do in the "shaking" process that would take place in that generation. The final purification of this planet in the future of any remaining spiritual evil will be accomplished when all HUMAN evil is purged from the globe. This will be accomplished in the saints' final, third resurrection event with its final judgment of mankind. The physical planet itself is not composed of anything evil, and needs no purification. And the Satanic realm has already been dealt with back in the first century by its complete eradication , as God promised to do in several scripture prophetic passages. So we are not waiting for that to occur.
Would you say you are more Idealist or more Amillennial?
I am neither, since I believe the Revelation 20 millennium was speaking of a literal thousand years of Satan's deception being bound, which finished with the First Resurrection in AD 33 of Christ and the 144,000 First-fruits resurrected Matthew 27:52-53 saints. By my understanding of the term (which could be flawed), an Idealist would assign too many of the prophetic scripture into the strictly symbolic category, when they were quite literally fulfilled in real time historical events in the past.
 
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Really........ based who's determination? Yours?
RB, years ago I printed off a copy of the post from GCF where you and I exchanged our views on what "this generation" meant. And you did not have a response on the point of "this generation" causing Christ to "suffer many things" and be "rejected" by "this generation". But of course, we should take that to another post if you decide to start one on that theme alone.

And I don't really picture this as a situation that needs "armor". We are talking around a table, each of us with our Bibles in front of us with coffee and donuts between. Preferably chocolate...
 
.
~ so, by employing allegorical interpretation, ( interpreting those allegorical phrases with SCRIPTURES )
Would you say Revelation should be read literally where the text is meant to be read literally, and it should be read allegorically where it is meant to be read allegorically, and read anagogically where it is mean to be read anagogically?

Or would you, as an Idealist applying Idealism to Revelation, say Revelation should be read only allegorically, never literally or anagogically, because Revelation is only and always everywhere allegorical?
the book is reduced to a symbolic exhibition of good versus evil.
"Reduced"?

The book of Revelation instructs its readers not to add to or subtract from its contents. can I get some clarification on "reduced"?
“The more moderate form of allegorical interpretation, following Augustine, . . . regards the book of Revelation as presenting in a symbolic way the total conflict between Christianity and evil or, as Augustine put it, the City of God versus the City of Satan. Zion versus Babylon, they had a king over them, which is the angel of the bottomless pit, whose name in the Hebrew tongue is Abaddon, but in the Greek tongue hath his name Apollyon.
I am very familiar with Augustine, the various eschatological positions he took over the course of his lifetime and his books (including "The City of God"). I am curious about the mention of "The City of God " because there are only two places in the entire book where Augustine mentions Revelation (once in chapter 7 and again in chapter 13 of Book 20) and neither report is specifically Idealist. Thoroughly Amillennial, but not Idealist.

What am I missing?

And what does Augustine's "City of God" have to do with sola scriptura? In one part of the same post I read, "The only rule I use is sola scriptura," but then I also read an appeal to Augustine, and extra-biblical source. Then I also read the main guidelines would be using scripture to interpret Revelation (a principle previously asserted in this thread by both Arial and I). Can you see why I ask this question?
The main guidelines would be using scriptures to interpret Revelation. Also, knowing that Revelation is not written in chronological manner, chapters do not follow each other in sequence....
I completely agree.

Let me clarify that: I, a partial-preterist Amillennialist, agree. In other words, I can agree with those two sentences and not be Idealist. The exegetical principle scripture renders scripture or scripture is the first best tool for understanding itself, especially for identifying the meaning of its own symbols is a commonly agreed upon method. It's not specifically nor particularly Idealist.

Yes?

The non-chronological view of Revelation is not a universally held. I agree with you and I would go so far as to say it's not only not chronological, but it also repeats itself (recapitulation). What Idealist interpretive method was used to conclude Revelation is not chronological?
 
This is just one example he and I have exchanged views on before: the context of Matthew 24:19-20 saying, "Woe unto them that are with child, and to them that give suck in those days! But pray ye that your flight be not in the winter, neither on the sabbath day..." According to RB's Idealist understanding of this passage, this "flight" is a spiritual one of believers leaving churches in doctrinal error who have departed from the truth. The "winter" is to be understood as a spiritually stagnant period of the church's growth. I never could get the Idealist understanding of what a literal nursing or pregnant woman was supposed to actually be in symbolic terms. But the Idealist pattern RB adopts seems to take clearly literal terms and have them morphed into symbolic, spiritual realities of some sort.
That's a new one for me. The truth of the matter concerning interpretations of Revelation, even though they are given specific named, most people in figuring it have a positional starting point and work it out with many differing conclusions that align with this and that. When it comes to Matt 24 (which I don't really want to get into in depth)Jesus is not always talking about the same things. Sometimes it directly relates to when no stone is left standing, and sometimes end times and His second coming. Verses 19-20 would be referring to 70 a.d. in that case.
The physical planet itself is not composed of anything evil, and needs no purification. And the Satanic realm has already been dealt with back in the first century by its complete eradication , as God promised to do in several scripture prophetic passages. So we are not waiting for that to occur.
I disagree with most of that paragraph as I find no scriptural evidence for it and none is given. But will address this from the idealist perspective. In Rev when it speaks of Satan being bound for a thousand years it qualifies it. He was bound from deceiving the nations. And he is obviously still active in the world. So from deceiving the nations deals with the gospel going to the nations and satan not being allowed to stop that. And since he cannot stop the spread of the gospel, he cannot stop Jesus' sheep from being gathered. In addition, all believers are sealed in Christ and cannot be taken out of His hand. The thousand years then would be the church age---or from the resurrection until satan is unbound for a short time, that is, allowed to deceive the nations. And this is shortly before Christ's second coming, and will bring in a time of persecution of Christians by governments, such as has not been seen before. And then satan is destroyed, all the wicked with him, Jesus returns, and we arrive at the new heaven and the new earth.
 
I disagree with most of that paragraph as I find no scriptural evidence for it and none is given.
Not very many at all are willing to consider this point of a past eradication of the Satanic realm, even from a presentation of the scriptures about it. At any rate, it's a subject that doesn't really belong on the theme of this post, which is why I didn't carry that point any further.
But will address this from the idealist perspective. In Rev when it speaks of Satan being bound for a thousand years it qualifies it. He was bound from deceiving the nations. And he is obviously still active in the world.
The heart of fallen mankind in its natural state is capable of deceiving itself and others without any assistance whatever from the Satanic realm being present in the world. Christ made that very clear in Mark 7:21. "For, from within, out of the heart of men, proceed evil thoughts, ...deceit, lasciviousness..." etc.. Those who have no belief in human depravity would deny this fact. Even believers can be deluded and can deceive others (as "deceiving your own selves").
In addition, all believers are sealed in Christ and cannot be taken out of His hand.
Thank God for the surety of this...
The thousand years then would be the church age---or from the resurrection until satan is unbound for a short time, that is, allowed to deceive the nations.
That is not the given order of events in Revelation 20 for the millennium. The millennium ends with the "First Resurrection", which was that of Christ and the Matt. 27:52-53 resurrected saints in AD 33. The Matthew 27:52-53 saints were the Revelation 20:5 "remnant of the dead" which "lived again" when the millennium was finished. This event of the "remnant of the dead" coming to life again was called the "First resurrection". They were the group of "First-fruits" to be raised from the grave: all 144,000 of them who came out of Jewish graves broken open around Jerusalem after Christ's resurrection as the "First-fruits".
 
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