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@Josheb
As the thread has been successfully taken off track and none of the conclusions reached that were presented in the method of Amillennial/idealist, have been discussed at all, let's go where it has been taken. Here are the opening statements made in the OP.
Your response was:
So, since the above has been said, it is up to you to demonstrate how the other methods do not use correct hermeneutics, exegesis, etc. but arrive at their conclusions from a pre-established view rather than the other way around. And since the OP concerns itself with only the one view, restrict it to that method.
How does it not read scripture as written and the logically necessary conclusions reached?
How does it not apply long-held and well established rules of exegesis?
What does a false accusation against preterism have to do with it?
How does it add things to Rev 1:3 or any other verse? Or subtract things?
How does it not read exactly as written with the normal meaning of the words in everyday usage? And is there ever a time when what one considers everyday usage shows by what follows that the everyday usage was being applied to the wrong thing or that the evidence found in the rest of the content shows it was being used in another way for another purpose? A warning perhaps?
As the thread has been successfully taken off track and none of the conclusions reached that were presented in the method of Amillennial/idealist, have been discussed at all, let's go where it has been taken. Here are the opening statements made in the OP.
There are four basic interpretive approaches to this book: Preterism including partial preterism, futurism, historicism, and idealism.
Note the words "approaches", "categories", and "tools."Attached to these are the categories of premillennialism, amillennialism, and postmillennialism. Add to that the two basic interpretive tools, dispensationalism and covenant, and we have yet more divergences in methods and categories.
Your response was:
This implies that the other three approaches to the book of Revelation are methods but for some reason preterism is not. You go a bit farther and say:Correctly understood, Preterism (partial- or full-) is not a "method."
The first sentence implies that the other three methods do not read scripture as it is written or use rules of exegesis, as though I were talking about all the many failures in people being the basis for the interpretive approaches rather than the established and defined approach itself. And even though I laid out the approach in this method later in the post, and the exegesis etc. that forms it. It accuses "most others", unlike, yourself, of adding and subtracting, to arrive at what they already believe, as though the OP was about the shortcomings of people and not the established and defined method itself.Preterists are preterists because scripture is read as written and the logically necessary conclusions of reading scripture as written and applying long-held and well-established rules of exegesis is (partial-)preterism.
I, as a partial-preterist, DO NOT approach scripture with a pre-existing belief everything or most everything is in the past. That never happens. It is and has always been a false accusation wrongly leveled against preterism. I read verse like Revelation 1:3 literally. I, unlike most others, do not add anything to the verse and subtract nothing from it. I read it exactly as written with the normal meaning of the words as found in ordinary everyday usage. Many hermeneutics claim to do this but they do not.
So, since the above has been said, it is up to you to demonstrate how the other methods do not use correct hermeneutics, exegesis, etc. but arrive at their conclusions from a pre-established view rather than the other way around. And since the OP concerns itself with only the one view, restrict it to that method.
How does it not read scripture as written and the logically necessary conclusions reached?
How does it not apply long-held and well established rules of exegesis?
What does a false accusation against preterism have to do with it?
How does it add things to Rev 1:3 or any other verse? Or subtract things?
How does it not read exactly as written with the normal meaning of the words in everyday usage? And is there ever a time when what one considers everyday usage shows by what follows that the everyday usage was being applied to the wrong thing or that the evidence found in the rest of the content shows it was being used in another way for another purpose? A warning perhaps?