I don't have a lot of time this morning so I will keep this brief and return later to address other problems in this op. The chief problem begins with the fact the op singles out two verses, removes them from their inherent context and makes broad over-generalized claims about these two poroof-texted verses that are selected in neglect of all else that scripture has to say on the matter.
Neither 2 Peter 2:4 nor Genesis 6:5 define all hamartiology.
Why you looking for hamartiology?
God didn't offer salvation to the sinning angels.
Scripture says:
4 For if God spared not the angels that sinned, but cast them down to hell, and delivered them into chains of darkness, to be reserved unto judgment. 2 Pe 2:4.
"The angels that sinned" covers ALL the angels that sinned and this is one-third of the total created.
So, if ALL the angels that sinned were cast down to hell and delivered them into chains of darkness awaiting judgment then that means there are no angels that sinned that are loose upon creation.
Why are you having so much trouble with this truth?
It's just bad method. Slopy exegesis at best, willful eisegesis at worst, and given the now clearly-evident repeated refusal to address the question asked about the adversary's and his ilk's influences there's plenty of reason for concluding this op is willfully eisegetic.
The only adversary of God is on the planet, and they are human.
And this covers both saved people and non-saved people.
Romans 5 tells us one man (Adam) is the cause of sin's entrance into the world, but the creation account of Genesis and that found episodically throughout the psalms and the prophets, along with the words of Jude inform us that a creature of God, the one who was subsequently called "satan" or "adversary" was the first in creation to sin, not Adam. Adam's disobedience brought sin into the world, but the sinful creature satan, in the form of the serpent, already existed in Eden prior to Adam acting in disobedience. So when jeremiah1five claims "There is no satan except as the word is used: adjective and noun - 'adversary''" that statement may be partly true in the singular examples of proof-texted verses but 1) the methodology is bad, and 2) it is not true of the larger condition of human existence.
It doesn't say anything about the act of sin. Talk about eisegesis.
12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:
God created man (Adam) sinful, fallen short of the glory of God. The word for sin is harmartia and it means "missing the mark."
What is the "mark?"
The glory of God.
13 (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
If there is a law against something Paul says we are guilty of it as sinners, even before we commit the act of that sin that God commands we do not commit.
Well guess what? The existence of the law shows us we are sinners.
"Thou shalt not [eat of it]" shows us Adam was a sinner BEFORE He sinned.
Sin does come from sinner, right?
Rom. 5:12–13.
Paul says:
7 What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet. Rom. 7:7.
Now let's apply it to Adam:
ADAM: "I had not known disobedience but by the law/command: for I had not known disobedience except the law/command said, thou shalt not [eat of it.]"
One of my favorite books in the Bible is the book of James. I like it because James squarely lays the problem of sin in and on the human. Not once does he ever attribute sin to spiritual and demonic activity. In fact, he says the devil will flee if resisted! So my dissent is not wholly in disagreement of this op. We are culpable and we are our biggest problem. However, James was writing to the saved about the saved. James was not writing about the larger issues of hamartiology. Gnesis 6:5 did not occur in a post-Calvery, post-Pentecost world. Peter's epistle was but it does not say the bondage into which those angels was held prohibited them from influencing humans. The gospel is filled with examples in which they did.
So while the op hypocritically argues one thing I did not mention, the problem is the plethora of conditions not mentioned in this opening post. I'll cover more of it when I have time.
Paul does not say anything about the act of sin only that the existence of the law/command showed him he was a sinner and we know - at least some of us do - that sin comes from sinner.
Adam was a sinner before he sinned.
8 But sin, taking occasion by the commandment, wrought in me all manner of concupiscence. For without the law sin was dead. 9 For I was alive without the law once:
but when the commandment came, sin revived, and I died. 10 And the commandment, which was ordained to life, I found to be unto death. 11 For sin, taking occasion by the commandment, deceived me, and by it slew me. 12 Wherefore the law is holy, and the commandment holy, and just, and good. Rom. 7:8–12.
"Thou shalt not" in the Garden shows us Adam was a sinner BEFORE he sinned.