The 2 Natures in Christ

[Binyawmene]

I don't think so, I understand you to be separating nature from person.

That's like separating human life from person.

That's not true at all. History lesson for you. "No one who examines the Chalcedonian creed against the background of the Christological controversies which preceded it can charge it with attempting to define the person of Jesus Christ or to force the inexpressible into conceptual forms." (A Short History of Christian Doctrine, by Bernhard Lohse).

Scriptural reference for 'God in the Flesh':

⦁ God "in the flesh" (1 Timothy, 1 John 4:2, 2 John 7).

⦁ God took part in "flesh and blood" (Hebrews 2:14, 17).

⦁ God dwelled among us "in the flesh" (John 1:1, 14).

⦁ God with us "in the flesh" (Matthew 1:23).

⦁ God's flesh is touched physically "in the flesh" (1 John 1:1-2).

⦁ God suffered "in the flesh" (1 Peter 4:1).

⦁ God condemn sin "in the flesh" (Romans 8:3).

⦁ God Died "in the flesh" (1 Peter 3:18, Hebrews 5:7).

⦁ God is resurrected in "flesh and bones" (Luke 24:39).

⦁ God over all (Romans 9:5).

Leontius of Byzantium who coined the term enypostatos in its relation to Christ’s human nature and not the relation to his Divine Nature. He is the one that brought out the meaning and articulated the term. The term hypostasis to an adjectival form enypostatos simply means “in-hypostatic or in-personal." The human nature becomes hypostatized-actualized, instantiated, or personalized. Basically, the human nature of Christ did not have independent existence outside of the union. There is no time intervals between "flesh" and "Word." The created human nature has no person 'existing prior to or apart from' the Divine Son-Person, while instantaneously and synchronously, the human nature is 'existing in and through' the Divine Person. These terms were introduced as a defense for the Chalcedon Creed’s definitions (one hypostasis or one subsistence) in order to refute Monophysites, Nestorians, Eutychians, and Apollinarians. So, the term enypostatos indicates the human nature is “in” the Second Person in the Trinity and existing enhypostatically or hypostatically. From the Chalcedonian Creed:

"...and concurring in one Person and one Subsistence, not parted or divided into two persons,..."​

 

[Eleanor]

That's not true at all. History lesson for you. "No one who examines the Chalcedonian creed against the background of the Christological controversies which preceded it can charge it with attempting to define the person of Jesus Christ or to force the inexpressible into conceptual forms." (A Short History of Christian Doctrine, by Bernhard Lohse).
Scriptural reference for 'God in the Flesh':
⦁ God "in the flesh" (1 Timothy, 1 John 4:2, 2 John 7).
⦁ God took part in "flesh and blood" (Hebrews 2:14, 17)
⦁ God dwelled among us "in the flesh" (John 1:1, 14).
⦁ God with us "in the flesh" (Matthew 1:23).
⦁ God's flesh is touched physically "in the flesh" (1 John 1:1-2).
⦁ God suffered "in the flesh" (1 Peter 4:1).
⦁ God condemn sin "in the flesh" (Romans 8:3).
⦁ God Died "in the flesh" (1 Peter 3:18, Hebrews 5:7).
⦁ God is resurrected in "flesh and bones" (Luke 24:39).
⦁ God over all (Romans 9:5).

Leontius of Byzantium who coined the term enypostatos in its relation to Christ’s human nature and not the relation to his Divine Nature. He is the one that brought out the meaning and articulated the term. The term hypostasis to an adjectival form enypostatos simply means “in-hypostatic or in-personal." The human nature becomes hypostatized-actualized, instantiated, or personalized. Basically, the human nature of Christ did not have independent existence outside of the union. There is no time intervals between "flesh" and "Word."

My point precisely.

Nature does not exist apart from person, or living being. The person of Christ's human nature is not apart from his one person, which is both human and divine.

The created human nature has no person 'existing prior to or apart from' the Divine Son-Person,

The Divine Son-Person is immaterial spirit.

while instantaneously and synchronously, the human nature is 'existing in and through' the Divine Person.

The human nature, by definition, exists only in human persons.
The human nature of Christ is existing in and through the person who is both human and divine.
The second of the three divine spirit persons of the Trinity, God the Son, and his eternal divine nature, did not die on the cross, him being both eternal and immortal Spirit.

The atonement required a perfect human person to be sacrificed, it did not require a divine person.

These terms were introduced as a defense for the Chalcedon Creed’s definitions

It's not about the Chalcedon creed, it's about scripture, the incarnation and atonement.

(one hypostasis or one subsistence) in order to refute Monophysites, Nestorians, Eutychians, and Apollinarians. So, the term enypostatos indicates the human nature is “in” the Second Person in the Trinity and existing enhypostatically or hypostatically. From the Chalcedonian Creed:

"...and concurring in one Person and one Subsistence, not parted or divided into two persons,..."​

That is what I have been maintaining throughout.

 

[Binyawmene]

My point precisely.

Nature does not exist apart from person, or living being. The person of Christ's human nature is not apart from his one person, which is both human and divine.

snip*

That is what I have been maintaining throughout.

You have now you have finally agreed with me.

Nature does not exist apart from person, or living being. The person of Christ's human nature is not apart from his one person, which is both human and divine.

Good. Repeat that until you have memorized it. Or you can simply reread post 184:

When a Hypostatic Unionist use the phrase "God in the flesh," the word "God" in the phrase means "God the Son" (second person in the Trinity) according to the Divine Nature and he is the same underlying person of the human nature (Chalcedonian language Latin "subsistence" or Greek "hypostasis"). The created human nature has no person 'existing prior to or apart from' the incarnate Son (or the Divine Person), while instantaneously and synchronously, the human nature is 'existing in and through' the Divine Person. Technically the created human nature was not for a moment impersonal rather created in-personal and made completely in the Divine Person. And he goes by the name Jesus Christ in the incarnate state. And "Jesus Christ" refers to both God and man (we don't separate God from the man, it's the self-same individual) when Scriptures are taken as a whole.​

That would have solved your whole problem from the beginning.

 

[Eleanor]

You have now you have finally agreed with me.

Good to know.

Good. Repeat that until you have memorized it. Or you can simply reread post 184:

When a Hypostatic Unionist use the phrase "God in the flesh," the word "God" in the phrase means "God the Son" (second person in the Trinity) according to the Divine Nature and he is the same underlying person of the human nature (Chalcedonian language Latin "subsistence" or Greek "hypostasis"). The created human nature has no person 'existing prior to or apart from' the incarnate Son (or the Divine Person), while instantaneously and synchronously, the human nature is 'existing in and through the Divine Person.​

The person of Jesus is both divine and human, not just divine.

Technically the created human nature was not for a moment impersonal rather created in-personal and made completely in the Divine Person.

Both the human nature and the divine nature are in the one person, making the one person both human and divine, not just divine.

And he goes by the name Jesus Christ in the incarnate state. And "Jesus Christ" refers to both God and man (we don't separate God from the man, it's the self-same individual) when Scriptures are taken as a whole

Refers to both God and man in the one person because the one person is both divine and human, not just divine, because of the two natures in that one person.

That would have solved your whole problem from the beginning.

Are you sure about that?

 

[Binyawmene]

Are you sure about that?

You tell me. I'm not a psychic and I don't read minds. If there is something you want to discuss, then present your case. Or you can keep agreeing with me.

 

[Binyawmene]

Good to know.

The person of Jesus is both divine and human, not just divine.​

​

Both the human nature and the divine nature are in the one person, making the one person both human and divine, not just divine.​

​

Refers to both God and man in the one person because the one person is both divine and human, not just divine, because of the two natures in that one person.

Are you sure about that?

You want to discuss post 185?

1. If that were the case, what is created from Mary would not have a full and complete human nature. After-all, the human nature has no human person. And the human nature would not be made complete in HIM? As if the Divine Person replaced the human person? So, the Divine Person would have to be both divine and human, and human upon the incarnation. He became human as constituted. The Person is Divine according to the Divine Nature and human according to the human nature. Because in Chalcedonian Christology teaches a theanthropic person. If the Person is divine only in the union without being human too, then it would rob Jesus Christ of his humanity as being incomplete. He would not also be a complete human, but rather a human nature possessing a Divine Person. <--- Doesn't sound like fully human at all.​

Or address Cyril argument:

The Son-Person is both Divine and human. If Jesus Christ is a Theanthropic Person in the human nature, then he is also a Theanthropic Person in the Divine Nature. Or, if the Son-Person being Divine in the human nature, then the Son-Person being human in the Divine Nature. After all, there is only "one subsistence" for both natures.​

And your response will be?

 

[Eleanor]

You want to discuss post 185?

1. If that were the case, what is created from Mary would not have a full and complete human nature. After-all, the human nature has no human person. And the human nature would not be made complete in HIM? As if the Divine Person replaced the human person? So, the Divine Person would have to be both divine and human, and human upon the incarnation. He became human as constituted. The Person is Divine according to the Divine Nature and human according to the human nature. Because in Chalcedonian Christology teaches a theanthropic person. If the Person is divine only in the union without being human too, then it would rob Jesus Christ of his humanity as being incomplete. He would not also be a complete human, but rather a human nature possessing a Divine Person. <--- Doesn't sound like fully human at all.​

Not sure what good it would do when I don't agree with your premise.

Or address Cyril argument:

The Son-Person is both Divine and human. If Jesus Christ is a Theanthropic Person in the human nature, then he is also a Theanthropic Person in the Divine Nature. Or, if the Son-Person being Divine in the human nature, then the Son-Person being human in the Divine Nature. After all, there is only "one subsistence" for both natures.​

And your response will be?

In plain language, Jesus had two natures in one person, therefore, his person was both human and divine.

I'm more of a Biblicist than a philosopher.

 

[Binyawmene]

Not sure what good it would do when I don't agree with your premise.

You do know that the Hypostatic Union teaches the human nature of Christ has no human person? Unless you disagree with the basic fundamental teachings of Christianity. Its God the Son, the Word, the second Person in the Trinity that assumed the human nature and became human for us and for our salvation.

In plain language, Jesus had two natures in one person, therefore, his person was both human and divine.

I'm more of a Biblicist than a philosopher.

That's cool. I didn't think you would be able to address Cyril argument.

 

[Eleanor]

You do know that the Hypostatic Union teaches the human nature of Christ has no human person? Unless you disagree with the basic fundamental teachings of Christianity.

Well, I do distinguish between the teaching of Scripture and all other teaching.

Its God the Son, the Word, the second Person in the Trinity that assumed the human nature and became human for us and for our salvation.

That's cool. I didn't think you would be able to address Cyril argument.

I address Biblical arguments.

Feel free to present one.

 

[Binyawmene]

Well, I do distinguish between the teaching of Scripture and all other teaching.

I address Biblical arguments.

Feel free to present one.

Sure. You find the Greek word "hypostasis" or in Latin "subsistence" in the book of Hebrews 1:3 "charaktér tēs hypostaseōs," the Son is the exact expression of the Father's hypostasis. So you have two hypostases. The Father's hypostasis mention in the singular, and the Son's hypostasis, which is clearly implied by "the exact expression of the." The Son only has one hypostasis for both natures which is the Hypostatic Union.

Chalcedonian Creed: "...and concurring in one Person and one Subsistence, not parted or divided into two persons,..."​

Can you demonstrate that Christ's human nature was created with a human person? I am also curious. Did you reject Creeds and Christological terms and phrases? Especially when the meaning of a term or phrase is 'drawn out' from Scriptures or from the whole of Scriptures exegetically. And the origins of a term and phrase doesn't matter. It's like saying "omnipresence" is not mentioned in Scripture, and you could possibly trace "omnipresence" to Greek philosophy. Should you reject using the term omnipresence? Of course not, the term is exegetically drawn out from the whole of Scriptures.

 

[Eleanor]

Sure. You find the Greek word "hypostasis" or in Latin "subsistence" in the book of Hebrews 1:3 "charaktér tēs hypostaseōs," the Son is the exact expression of the Father's hypostasis. So you have two hypostases. The Father's hypostasis mention in the singular, and the Son's hypostasis, which is clearly implied by "the exact expression of the." The Son only has one hypostasis for both natures which is the Hypostatic Union.

I've never asserted two "beings" in the Son, only two natures in one being/person.

Chalcedonian Creed: "...and concurring in one Person and one Subsistence, not parted or divided into two persons,..."​

Can you demonstrate that Christ's human nature was created with a human person? I am also curious. Did you reject Creeds and Christological terms and phrases? Especially when the meaning of a term or phrase is 'drawn out' from Scriptures or from the whole of Scriptures exegetically. And the origins of a term and phrase doesn't matter. It's like saying "omnipresence" is not mentioned in Scripture, and you could possibly trace "omnipresence" to Greek philosophy. Should you reject using the term omnipresence? Of course not, the term is exegetically drawn out from the whole of Scriptures.

 

[Binyawmene]

I've never asserted two "beings" in the Son, only two natures in one being/person.

Let me know when you have something of substance to offer. I'm assuming you want the last word. Stay blessed and enjoy the rest of your day.

 

[SeventhDay]

Hypostatic Union

1. Jesus is a person. (1 Tim 2:5)

2. Jesus, the Person, has two natures- Divine and human (John 1:1, 14, 1 Timothy 3:16): Divine and human. This is the Hypostatic Union.( Col 2:9, Heb 1:3,2:16)

3. The Communicatio Idiomatum (Communication of the Properties) states that the attributes of His Divine nature and human nature are both ascribed to the one Person of Jesus. So Jesus can exhibit attributes of Divinity (Omnipresence, Omniscience, Omnipotence, . John 2:23, 3:13, 8:58, He was prayed to in Acts 7:59, John 14:13, He was is worshiped Matt 2:2:11, Rev 5:13-14) and at the same time exhibit attributes of His humanity( He was tempted, ate, prayed,wept, grew in wisdom and stature,was anointed,was baptized, the Father was greater, didn’t know the day or the hour of His Return, He cried My God my God why has Thou forsaken Me, He died etc.). The communicatio idiomatum does not mean that any part of the Divine nature was communicated to the human nature.


4. The Man(anthropos) Jesus is what we perceive (if we were there 2000 years ago in Israel) and through the Man we encounter the Divine nature (Jesus knowing all things, is on earth while in heaven, answers prayer, forgiving sins, etc.).

5. The Person of Jesus will always be both Divine and human. (John 1:1,14,20:28, 1 John 5:20, 1 Timothy 2:5) Those who deny this fact are the spirit of antichrist. (1 John 4:1-4,2 John 7)

6. The Divine Nature is within the Trinity.(Father, Son and Holy Spirit)

7. Since the Person of Jesus claims the attributes of Divinity(John 3:13,8:58,Matthew 9:2,12:8), then the Person of Jesus is a member of the Trinity.( John 14-16, Math 28:19)

Anything said of either of Christ's two natures applies to the one Person of Christ, so that is how it is said that Christ died on the cross. The term "hypostatic union" refers to the two natures united in the one Person, so anything said of those two natures in the one Person applies to the whole Person. So we see that the Person of Christ is both God and man. The phrase hypostatic union was adopted by the general council at Chalcedon 451 AD. That council declared that the union of two natures is real (against Arius), not a mere indwelling of God in a man (against Nestorius), with a rational soul (against Apollinaris), and that in Christ’s Divine nature remains unchanged (against Eutyches).



We need to look to the Monothelite Controversy which had to deal with whether there was one or two wills/minds in the person of Christ. The outcome was that there were two; one human and one divine with the human subjected to the divine. The eternal Son of God did not assume a part of a human nature without a mind, without a will, without human activity, but He assumed all the things that were planted in our nature by God.

Now then, to act (or in this case, speak) is the work of a person, but the form or nature is the cause of this action; for each person acts in accord with the form or nature which it has. A difference in causes (natures) produces a difference in effects (actions). Therefore, where there are different natures, there are also different activities. So in the one Person of Christ there are two natural actions, the divine and the human, each of which has its own essential attributes, functions, and actions. Jesus was thirty years old according to His human nature (Luke 3:23); according to His divine nature He could say: "Before Abraham was born, I am" (John 8:58). The question is did both natures know this and communicate it to the Person. The answer is yes because the divine nature with its corresponding divine will willed the human nature to respond in such a fashion in keeping with Christ's office and ministry. In the text regarding Mark 13:32, we have a slightly different situation here. Christ is acting (speaking) from His human nature, but, this time, the divine will does not allow the human will access to this knowledge. For this information is not to be published on earth. Therefore, as man, Christ cannot answer the question.

hope this helps !!!

There is no two natures in Christ but one Spirit. There is no God-man! There is either one or the other and there is no co-joining. The hypostatic union and the trinity is a man made pagan doctrine not fit for spiritual consumption! Jesus is God in the role of human servant not a God-man. There is no God-man! It is a myth and do not believe it!

 

[Eleanor]

There is no two natures in Christ but one Spirit. There is no God-man! There is either one or the other and there is no co-joining. The hypostatic union and the trinity is a man made pagan doctrine not fit for spiritual consumption! Jesus is God in the role of human servant not a God-man. There is no God-man! It is a myth and do not believe it!

Sorry you feel that the NT is a myth, for it witnesses throughout that the man Jesus is God.

I. The NT identifies Jesus as the YHWH of the OT in

Mt 3:3, Lk 1:67-68, 76 (Isa 40:3) - Jesus is the YHWH of whom the voice calling in the wilderness (John the Baptist) prepared the way.

Ro 10:9, 13 (Joel 2:32) - Paul teaches Jesus is the YHWH of Joel's prophecy that "everyone who calls on the name of YHWH will be saved."

Heb 1:6 (Dt 32:43) - Heb quotes Moses' song referring to YHWH and says it applies to Jesus.

Rev 1:12-18 (Isa 44:6, 48:12) - the man in the vision is Jesus (1:18, 2:8) who identifies himself as the First and the Last which is YHWH identification of himself.

Rev 21:6, 22:12-13 (Rev 1:8) - the man in the vision (Jesus) identifies himself as the Alpha and Omega of Rev 1:8, which is YHWH.

Rev 21:5-7 (Rev 20:11-13) -Jesus, the one on the throne (Rev 20:11-13 with Jn 5:22, 27, 9:39), is God (Rev 21:7).

The Elohim and YHWH who created all things (Ge 1:1, Is 44:24, Jer 10:16) is Jesus (Jn 1:3, Col 1:16-17, Heb 1:2b, 10).

Jesus is
Immanuel (Isa 7:14, Mt 1:23) "God with us;"
Mighty God, Everlasting Father" (Isa 9:6);
God who came to save (Isa 35:4-6, 43:11),
YHWH Adonai of Eze 34:11-16 who is the shepherd of the sheep (Jn 10:11-15).

II. Jews understood that Jesus said he was God, seeking many times to stone him for blasphemy (Mk 2:3-7, Jn 6:41-42, 10:30-33, 5:18, 8:58-59, 19:7--Lev 24:16).

III. Paul said we are waiting for the glorious appearing of 'the great God and Savior of us Jesus Christ." (Tit 2:13)

IV. The NT testifies that Jesus is not an angel (Heb 1:4-14), that his "name" is Son--a name to which no angel can lay claim (Heb 1:4), that he is begotten of God (giving him the same nature as God, divine) and that he is the only begotten of God, he has no brothers like himself, divine.

V. The NT presents worship of Jesus together with his Father:
To the gods of paganism (Ac 17:22-27), Paul opposes one God the Father and one Lord Jesus Christ (1 Co 8:5-6) to be worshiped, and shows
worship of Jesus (Php 2:10),
prayer to Jesus (Ac 7:59, 9:14, 2 Co 12:8, 1 Co 1:2, 16:22, Rev 22:20)
praise to Jesus (Ro 9:5, 2 Tim 4:8, 2 Pe 3:18, Rev 1:5-6, 5:10, 7:13)
desired divine blessing of Jesus (1 Th 3:11-13, 2 Th 3:5, 16)
all of which are reserved to God alone (Ex 20:3-5, Mt 4:9-10, Ac 10:25-26, Rev 19:10, 22:8-9).

VI. The NT presents Jesus as having the attributes of God:
eternal existence - Jn 1:1, 2, 1 Jn 1:2, Rev 1:8, 22:13,
omnipresence - Mt 18:20, 28:20, Ac 18:10.
omniscience - Mt 9:4, Jn 2:24-25, 6:64, 21:17b, 16:30, Col 2:3,
omnipotence - Mt 28:18, Jn 3:35, 6:39b, 40b, 54b, 11:25, 13:3, Php 3:21, Col 1:17, 19, 2:9, Heb 1:3, 10-12, Rev 1:8, 21:5 (Da 7:14),
immutability - Heb 1:10-12, 13:8,
providence - Lk 10:22, Jn 3:35, 17:2, Eph 1:22, Col 1:17, Heb 1:3,
forgiveness of sin - Mk 2:7-11, Ac 5:31, Col 3:13,
judges sin - Mt 25:31-32, Jn 5:22, 27, Ac 10:42, 17:31, Ro 2:16, 14:10, 2 Co 5:10, 2 Tim 4:1,
gives eternal life - Jn 5:21, 6:54, 57, 11:25-26 1 Co 15:45,
source of eternal life - Jn 1:4, 5:26, 14:6, Ac 3:15, 1 Jn 1:1-2, 5:11-12, 20, Rev 1:18.

Confession that "Jesus is Lord" means to acknowledge that Jesus is a person to be invoked, trusted, known, praised and adored as God the Father is (Jn 5:23); i.e., as divine.

The NT witnesses throughout that Jesus is God.

 

[SeventhDay]

Sorry you feel that the NT is a myth, for it witnesses throughout that the man Jesus is God.

I. The NT identifies Jesus as the YHWH of the OT in

Mt 3:3, Lk 1:67-68, 76 (Isa 40:3) - Jesus is the YHWH of whom the voice calling in the wilderness (John the Baptist) prepared the way.

Ro 10:9, 13 (Joel 2:32) - Paul teaches Jesus is the YHWH of Joel's prophecy that "everyone who calls on the name of YHWH will be saved."

Heb 1:6 (Dt 32:43) - Heb quotes Moses' song referring to YHWH and says it applies to Jesus.

Rev 1:12-18 (Isa 44:6, 48:12) - the man in the vision is Jesus (1:18, 2:8) who identifies himself as the First and the Last which is YHWH identification of himself.

Rev 21:6, 22:12-13 (Rev 1:8) - the man in the vision (Jesus) identifies himself as the Alpha and Omega of Rev 1:8, which is YHWH.

Rev 21:5-7 (Rev 20:11-13) -Jesus, the one on the throne (Rev 20:11-13 with Jn 5:22, 27, 9:39), is God (Rev 21:7).

The Elohim and YHWH who created all things (Ge 1:1, Is 44:24, Jer 10:16) is Jesus (Jn 1:3, Col 1:16-17, Heb 1:2b, 10).

Jesus is
Immanuel (Isa 7:14, Mt 1:23) "God with us;"
Mighty God, Everlasting Father" (Isa 9:6);
God who came to save (Isa 35:4-6, 43:11),
YHWH Adonai of Eze 34:11-16 who is the shepherd of the sheep (Jn 10:11-15).

II. Jews understood that Jesus said he was God, seeking many times to stone him for blasphemy (Mk 2:3-7, Jn 6:41-42, 10:30-33, 5:18, 8:58-59, 19:7--Lev 24:16).

III. Paul said we are waiting for the glorious appearing of 'the great God and Savior of us Jesus Christ." (Tit 2:13)

IV. The NT testifies that Jesus is not an angel (Heb 1:4-14), that his "name" is Son--a name to which no angel can lay claim (Heb 1:4), that he is begotten of God (giving him the same nature as God, divine) and that he is the only begotten of God, he has no brothers like himself, divine.

V. The NT presents worship of Jesus together with his Father:
To the gods of paganism (Ac 17:22-27), Paul opposes one God the Father and one Lord Jesus Christ (1 Co 8:5-6) to be worshiped, and shows
worship of Jesus (Php 2:10),
prayer to Jesus (Ac 7:59, 9:14, 2 Co 12:8, 1 Co 1:2, 16:22, Rev 22:20)
praise to Jesus (Ro 9:5, 2 Tim 4:8, 2 Pe 3:18, Rev 1:5-6, 5:10, 7:13)
desired divine blessing of Jesus (1 Th 3:11-13, 2 Th 3:5, 16)
all of which are reserved to God alone (Ex 20:3-5, Mt 4:9-10, Ac 10:25-26, Rev 19:10, 22:8-9).

VI. The NT presents Jesus as having the attributes of God:
eternal existence - Jn 1:1, 2, 1 Jn 1:2, Rev 1:8, 22:13,
omnipresence - Mt 18:20, 28:20, Ac 18:10.
omniscience - Mt 9:4, Jn 2:24-25, 6:64, 21:17b, 16:30, Col 2:3,
omnipotence - Mt 28:18, Jn 3:35, 6:39b, 40b, 54b, 11:25, 13:3, Php 3:21, Col 1:17, 19, 2:9, Heb 1:3, 10-12, Rev 1:8, 21:5 (Da 7:14),
immutability - Heb 1:10-12, 13:8,
providence - Lk 10:22, Jn 3:35, 17:2, Eph 1:22, Col 1:17, Heb 1:3,
forgiveness of sin - Mk 2:7-11, Ac 5:31, Col 3:13,
judges sin - Mt 25:31-32, Jn 5:22, 27, Ac 10:42, 17:31, Ro 2:16, 14:10, 2 Co 5:10, 2 Tim 4:1,
gives eternal life - Jn 5:21, 6:54, 57, 11:25-26 1 Co 15:45,
source of eternal life - Jn 1:4, 5:26, 14:6, Ac 3:15, 1 Jn 1:1-2, 5:11-12, 20, Rev 1:18.

Confession that "Jesus is Lord" means to acknowledge that Jesus is a person to be invoked, trusted, known, praised and adored as God the Father is (Jn 5:23); i.e., as divine.

The NT witnesses throughout that Jesus is God.

Jesus is God and the son of man identified with his true identity but it is Jesus in the role of the son of man! Understand?

 

[Eleanor]

Jesus is God and the son of man identified with his true identity but it is Jesus in the role of the son of man! Understand?

Jesus has two natures, human and divine, in one person.

Jesus is both human and divine, being the divine Son of God become man.

That is Christian orthodoxy.

 

[GeneZ]

One more issue;

When the man Jesus died, did the God Jesus die?

No, only the body of the man Jesus died. All spirits are immortal--divine, angelic and human. Jesus' immortal human spirit did not die, nor did God, the divine Spirit, die.

When the sins of the world were poured on the body of Jesus as he hung on the Cross?

Why did he begin screaming out...

"My God! ...My God!.... Why have you forsaken me!?"

Prior to that phase he endured beatings and torture unspeakable in the hands of men.
Yet, without a peep being heard from him.

He was oppressed and afflicted, yet he did not open his mouth; he was led like a lamb
to the slaughter, and as a sheep before its shearers is silent, so he did not open his mouth." Isaiah 53:7

He never said a word while being so physically abused.
What was it about our sins that caused Him to cry out over and over again in horrific agony?

The answer to that question reveals how Jesus died on the Cross to save us.

grace and peace ...........

 

[civic]

That's not true at all. History lesson for you. "No one who examines the Chalcedonian creed against the background of the Christological controversies which preceded it can charge it with attempting to define the person of Jesus Christ or to force the inexpressible into conceptual forms." (A Short History of Christian Doctrine, by Bernhard Lohse).

Scriptural reference for 'God in the Flesh':

⦁ God "in the flesh" (1 Timothy, 1 John 4:2, 2 John 7).

⦁ God took part in "flesh and blood" (Hebrews 2:14, 17).

⦁ God dwelled among us "in the flesh" (John 1:1, 14).

⦁ God with us "in the flesh" (Matthew 1:23).

⦁ God's flesh is touched physically "in the flesh" (1 John 1:1-2).

⦁ God suffered "in the flesh" (1 Peter 4:1).

⦁ God condemn sin "in the flesh" (Romans 8:3).

⦁ God Died "in the flesh" (1 Peter 3:18, Hebrews 5:7).

⦁ God is resurrected in "flesh and bones" (Luke 24:39).

⦁ God over all (Romans 9:5).

Leontius of Byzantium who coined the term enypostatos in its relation to Christ’s human nature and not the relation to his Divine Nature. He is the one that brought out the meaning and articulated the term. The term hypostasis to an adjectival form enypostatos simply means “in-hypostatic or in-personal." The human nature becomes hypostatized-actualized, instantiated, or personalized. Basically, the human nature of Christ did not have independent existence outside of the union. There is no time intervals between "flesh" and "Word." The created human nature has no person 'existing prior to or apart from' the Divine Son-Person, while instantaneously and synchronously, the human nature is 'existing in and through' the Divine Person. These terms were introduced as a defense for the Chalcedon Creed’s definitions (one hypostasis or one subsistence) in order to refute Monophysites, Nestorians, Eutychians, and Apollinarians. So, the term enypostatos indicates the human nature is “in” the Second Person in the Trinity and existing enhypostatically or hypostatically. From the Chalcedonian Creed:

"...and concurring in one Person and one Subsistence, not parted or divided into two persons,..."​

Amen brother spot on as usual.

 

[Runningman]

That's not true at all. History lesson for you. "No one who examines the Chalcedonian creed against the background of the Christological controversies which preceded it can charge it with attempting to define the person of Jesus Christ or to force the inexpressible into conceptual forms." (A Short History of Christian Doctrine, by Bernhard Lohse).

Scriptural reference for 'God in the Flesh':

⦁ God "in the flesh" (1 Timothy, 1 John 4:2, 2 John 7).

⦁ God took part in "flesh and blood" (Hebrews 2:14, 17).

⦁ God dwelled among us "in the flesh" (John 1:1, 14).

⦁ God with us "in the flesh" (Matthew 1:23).

⦁ God's flesh is touched physically "in the flesh" (1 John 1:1-2).

⦁ God suffered "in the flesh" (1 Peter 4:1).

⦁ God condemn sin "in the flesh" (Romans 8:3).

⦁ God Died "in the flesh" (1 Peter 3:18, Hebrews 5:7).

⦁ God is resurrected in "flesh and bones" (Luke 24:39).

⦁ God over all (Romans 9:5).

Leontius of Byzantium who coined the term enypostatos in its relation to Christ’s human nature and not the relation to his Divine Nature. He is the one that brought out the meaning and articulated the term. The term hypostasis to an adjectival form enypostatos simply means “in-hypostatic or in-personal." The human nature becomes hypostatized-actualized, instantiated, or personalized. Basically, the human nature of Christ did not have independent existence outside of the union. There is no time intervals between "flesh" and "Word." The created human nature has no person 'existing prior to or apart from' the Divine Son-Person, while instantaneously and synchronously, the human nature is 'existing in and through' the Divine Person. These terms were introduced as a defense for the Chalcedon Creed’s definitions (one hypostasis or one subsistence) in order to refute Monophysites, Nestorians, Eutychians, and Apollinarians. So, the term enypostatos indicates the human nature is “in” the Second Person in the Trinity and existing enhypostatically or hypostatically. From the Chalcedonian Creed:

"...and concurring in one Person and one Subsistence, not parted or divided into two persons,..."​

Except God isn't in the flesh nor does God perpetuate the sin of idolatry by taking on human form and remaining God. How do you deal with the idolatry problem in all of that?

 

[makesends]

You do know that the Hypostatic Union teaches the human nature of Christ has no human person? Unless you disagree with the basic fundamental teachings of Christianity. Its God the Son, the Word, the second Person in the Trinity that assumed the human nature and became human for us and for our salvation.

The one person, Jesus Christ, had two natures. @Eleanor keeps repeating this but you keep butting heads as though she is saying otherwise.