So, that I understand you correctly you are suggesting that a sinner is justified by their works before a Holy God?
Where do I ever say any sinner is justified by the Holy God? Whether by faith alone or by works?
The Holy God justifying the ungodly, is not justifying them being ungodly.
Only the righteous doing His righteousness, are justified with the righteous God,
1 John
{3:7} Little children, let no man deceive you: he that doeth righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous.
Second, what works did the thief on the Cross next to Jesus perform to be justified?
Rom 10:10
For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation.
Matth 12:37
For by thy words thou shalt be justified, and by thy words thou shalt be condemned.
Words are counted as good or evil works judged by God, and confession of the righteous faith of Jesus and His righteousness, is a work justified by God: The thief rightly did so, and if from the heart, then the Lord knows...
Mat 5:28
But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.
Not only words, but also thoughts and intents of the heart are judged by the Holy Spirit, as being committed works of good or evil.
Remember, the Bible reveals what the natural man does not see nor believe: that the works of man created in the image of God, begin in the heart. God sees and judges the works of the heart, while natural man only acknowledges the works of the body.
Please what works does a sinner need to do to be justified before a Holy God?
As argued above, no sinner can be justified before the Holy God, but only the godly doing His righteousness.
The only thing sinners need and can do to become justified with the Holy God, is to obey His commandment and repent of all sins and trespasses for Jesus' sake.
Ezek
{18:31} Cast away from you all your transgressions, whereby ye have transgressed; and make you a new heart and a new spirit: for why will ye die, O house of Israel? {18:32} For I have no pleasure in the death of him that dieth, saith the Lord GOD: wherefore turn [yourselves,] and live ye.
Acts
{17:30} And the times of this ignorance God winked at; but now commandeth all men every where to repent:
Heb
{6:1} Therefore leaving the principles of the doctrine of Christ, let us go on unto perfection; not laying again the foundation of repentance from dead works, and of faith toward God,
Repentance from dead works is not doing a work, but is not doing dead works.
Neither can any man boast with God for ceasing to be His enemy by dead works.
For the record here I am not disagreeing with what James is saying here. I just don't pit them against each other.
Neither do I. I've been establishing the truth of James 2, that man is justified by works, and not by faith only, and therefore rejecting any teaching of any man being justified by faith alone, and not by any works at all.
I say the only pitting of Christ against Himself, is done by diagreeing with James 2, and inserting justification by faith alone without works into Rom 4.
How does this Scripture help your position? Because this is quite opposite of what you are suggesting. If no flesh will be justified by the works of the Law?
I never brought in Romans 4, when preaching James 2. Nor do I bring in works of the law, when preaching doing God's righteousness.
It's Faith in Christ Alone that justifies the ungodly.
I know I've already agreed with this, and showed it's not the same as preaching one's own faith alone, for the ungodly to be justified without living godly.
By this, and by asking questions about things I've never said, I would ask you to try and read all my responses, and only challenge what I say.
I try to do the same for you. Thanks.
And not by the works of the law; meaning any human activity or effort.
This is a new one. Thanks. It's something I've never heard from others, much less read in Scripture.
Was not Jesus justified by doing all the works of the law? And so, not seeking to be justified by the works of the law, does not mean we do not the law in works:
Rom 2:13
(For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.
Jas 1:22
But be ye doers of the word, and not hearers only, deceiving your own selves.
meaning any human activity or effort.
The problem with this, is that only babes have no works, whether good or evil.
Rom 9:10
And not only this; but when Rebecca also had conceived by one, even by our father Isaac;
Rom 9:11
(For the children being not yet born, neither having done any good or evil, that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of him that calleth)
Because if it is through works then a debt is owed, it is not given as a gift, right?
True. The works of the law, such as circumcison of the flesh, does not alone justify any man with Jesus Christ.
Christ in Rom 4 condemns works alone without faith, and in James 2 condemns faith alone without works.
When did I ever suggest dead faith?
Any teaching of justification by faith alone, is teaching justification by dead faith.
James
{2:19} Thou believest that there is one God; thou doest well: the devils also believe, and tremble. {2:20} But wilt thou know, O vain man, that faith without works is dead?
Jas 2:17
Even so faith, if it hath not works, is dead, being alone.
Unless it can shown that James 2 is teaching any faith alone without works, is not dead.
Or, that there is a right teaching from the Bible, that all faith without works, is not dead?
If you are accusing of this, then you might as well accuse Paul too, right?
Of course not, since Christ's apostle never says anyone is justified by having faith alone. Not in Rom 4, nor anywhere else.
Where does Christ in Scripture ever speak of the words 'justified', 'faith', and 'alone' together, except to condemn it in James 2?