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The same Greek word is used in Jude 4.
You are running away from the question in post 69.
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You are still running away.John 14:14 is still there.
You are still running away.
so many man-made doctrine cliches.If you are Protestant and believe the five solas but do not believe the trinity / divinity of Christ then you are violating one of your precious solas!
Glory to god alone!
Scripture has it, Christ received glory:
Lk 2:32 A light to lighten the Gentiles, and the glory of thy people Israel.
Jn 17: 5 And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.
1 Timothy 3:16
And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.
Matthew 16:27
For the Son of man shall come in the glory of his Father with his angels; and then he shall reward every man according to his works.
Mark 8:38
Whosoever therefore shall be ashamed of me and of my words in this adulterous and sinful generation; of him also shall the Son of man be ashamed, when he cometh in the glory of his Father with the holy angels.
Luke 9:26
For whosoever shall be ashamed of me and of my words, of him shall the Son of man be ashamed, when he shall come in his own glory, and in his Father's, and of the holy angels.
John 1:14
And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.
If you don’t believe your own doctrines, how are you ever going to believe the truth?
Is Jesus Lord?
Yes then He must be divine!
If Jesus is Lord by not God then there would be two Lords!
Mystery of the trinity!
(The nature or essence of God is incomprehensible to man)
The father is Lord.
The son is Lord.
The Spirit is Lord.
But there are not three Lords, only one Lord! Deut 6:4
HLet’s stick with the canonized Bible. Do you have a preferred version?
Then we must include tradition!Let’s stick with the canonized Bible. Do you have a preferred version?
Scripture says worship not bowingJesus is a man. The intent of bowing to him is not to uplift him to God Almighty status. He was considered kingly with high status, therefore they bowed to him on more than one occasion proclaiming he is the Son of God. That isn’t the same as calling Jesus God. Jesus’ God is YHWH. In the context of bowing to someone, it is not necessarily implied someone is being deified since there are many biblical examples of bowing not being God worship.
The subject of John 17:3 is “you” (the Father) being referred to as the only true God. The word only means solitary, exclusive. That refers to the Father being the only God, Jesus isn’t. This is simply what the verse means whether you agree with it or not.The same Greek word is used in Jude 4.
You are running away from the question in post 69.
The same Greek word for pray (proseuchomai) in Matthew 6:9 is properly used in reference to the Lord Jesus in Acts 1:24.
Since "Praying indicates supplication to God in worship" demonstrates the Lord Jesus is properly prayed to as being God.
I don’t necessarily disagree with some of the traditions or with those who canonized the scripture, but while we’re at it why can’t we just start quoting secular literature too? I think we should try to keep it in the realm of then Bible so we are at least referring to the same book.Then we must include tradition!
Teaching authority of Christ commanded His apostles
Scripture includes it!
Tradition is divine revelation from Christ
Both verbal and scripture
Both are tradition!
2 thes 2:15
Tradition / revelation
Either by word (verbal) or epistle (scripture)
So one cannot have more importance or be superior to the other
One revelation of Jesus Christ!
Tradition
Verbal or scripture
Who canonized scripture?
What is scripture and what is not scripture? 73 books
The word only means solitary, exclusive.
Jesus isn’t the lord they are praying to in Acts 1:24.
You need much more proof than you just saying so.
Showing a prayer to the Father in Acts 4:24 does not negate a prayer to the Lord Jesus in Acts 1:24. Indeed, the same Greek word used for the Father in Acts 4:24 is used in reference to Jesus in Jude 4. This ties into my previous post and the question you keep dodging from post 69.
In fact, none of the 4 words right from the prayer in Acts 1:24-25 that I pointed out when used in association with the Lord were ever addressed.
Why did you dodge them?
My proof is according to precedent when there is praying to God in the Bible, it’s never used in association with praying to Jesus.
Your proof ignores the evidence I presented in post 71.
Try again.
It doesn’t say they prayed to the Lord Jesus.
Furthermore, they said the one they were praying to knows the hearts of all.
The only one in scripture said to know everyone’s heart is YHWH.
1 Sam 6:7
Luke 16:15
[/QUOTE]It doesn't say they prayed to the Father.
[/QUOTE]Thus, proving Jesus is YHWH.
In the OT, when they say God, it is the LORD, God the Father of Abraham, Isack, Jacob, Josef, and the rest of the Patriarchs.
Still greatly confused.