I don't want to be redundant because others are talking about this same topic, but a word (logos) is not literally a person. In the Bible, sometimes the writers write poetically because it goes without saying that words from God's mouth are not literally a person anymore than words from yours or my mouth are a he or she.
Can you spot the logical fallacies in your quote when you use it to what I had said about John 1?
You said, "a word (logos) is not literally a person."
1. No one said word as communication was a person.
2. You have not established that logos translated Word in John 1 means word as in sounds or writing as a means of communication.
You said,"In the Bible, sometimes the writers write poetically-"
1. A non sequitur. Sometimes moves the conversation to generalities and away fron John 1.
2. It equates "sometimes" as undeterminable when in fact the Bible writers write poetically when they are writing poetry or quoting poetry but not in prose.
You then connect that phrase with the word "because" which makes it mean sometimes the writers write poetically for the reason that "it goes without saying that words from God's mouth are not literally a person---".
1. Do people in the Bible write poetically because God's words are not literally a person? That almost doesn't qualify as a logical fallacy since there is zero logic in it It only does because it is made to sound like logic.
2. No one said God's words are persons.
So this in no way qualifies as a rebuttal to what I had said about the interpretation of John 1. It avoids doing so entirely, while attempting to present itself as having done so. Did you think I would not notice?
So lets, try again. I will go back to the passages in John 1, and let's find out what the use of logos by John was intended. That is what matters. Not some generic definition of a translation---logos into word. It takes a bit of understanding of the culture in which John was living as a Jew, but a subject of the Roman Empire, surrounded by paganism. The gospel was most likely written around 90 a.d.
Logos of course is a Greek word that in Greek philosophy, referred to logic or reason as an abstract force that brought order and harmony into the universe. In John's writings it was these qualities that he brought gathered in the person of Christ. (Jesus and Christ refer to the incarnation.) In both Greek philosophy and Neo-platonic philosophy of that day, as well as the Gnostic heresy, logos was seen as one of many intermediate powers between God and the world.
John said, no, there is one logos and He was in the beginning (Gen 1) and He was with God, and He was God. And repeats, He was with God in the beginning. And all things were made through Him. he is not using "word" poetically, and he is not using word as respect to speech. ὁ λόγος (John 1:1) which denotes the essential Word of God,i.e. the personal (hypostatic) wisdom and power in union with God, his minister in the creation and government of the universe, the cause of all the world's life both physical and ethical, which for the procurement of man's salvation put on human nature in the person of Jesus the Messiah and shone forth conspiculously from His words and deeds. John 1:1,14; 1 John 5:7) from Strongs.