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Jesus was never prayed to once in the Bible

I never claimed it was.
That's your confusion.
So the one in Acts 1:24 that knows everyone's heart isn't Jesus. Perfect.

John 2:24-25 is in the Bible.
Please point to us where it says he knows everyone's heart. I also know what is in a man because the old testament says the heart of man is desperately wicked. One doesn't need to be God to know that.
 
365 comments later, page 19, seems only @grace2 and myself believe Jesus' words in Matt 6:6,9 where Jesus plainly instructed his disciples to pray to the Father when they pray. I want to be a Christian so I am going to follow Jesus' teachings on the matter of prayer.
 
I want to be a Christian


A Christian prays to Jesus.


1. A disciple of the Lord = A Christian
Acts 11:26
And when he had found him, he brought him unto Antioch. And it came to pass, that an entire year they assembled themselves with the church, and taught multitudes of people. And the disciples were first called Christians in Antioch.
Acts 9:1
And Saul, yet breathing out threats and murder against the disciples of the Lord, went unto the high priest,


2. Paul wanted to bring these disciples of the Lord/Christians bound to Jerusalem.
Acts 9:2
And desired of him letters to Damascus to the synagogues, that if he found any belonging to the Way, whether they were men or women, he might bring them bound to Jerusalem.


3. A disciple of the Lord/Christian whom Paul wanted to bind is a person who calls on the Name of the Lord Jesus. This means they pray to Jesus.
Acts 9:14
And here he hath authority from the chief priests to bind all who call on Thy Name.
 
I addressed it directly in post #308. It doesn't come off as sincere to say I have not addressed what you have said. I have responded to everything you have said with hundreds, maybe thousands, of words at this point.
No you didn't. You stated your view. That is responding to what I said, but it is not addressing it. If you addressed it in a way that showed it was wrong, that supported your view and refuted what I said, you would be able to demonstrate with exegesis and exposition where I was wrong. What you did in post #308 was a bunch of vain speculations and truly nonsense. And when I addressed those things in posts #332 and338, you simply repeated the same fallacies, never addressing what I said. I actually do address what you say.
It was manifested.
That is your response to this:
How does one see with their own eyes an "it"; how does one touch with their hands an "it".? How do they do these things with "words"? How are words made manifest in the flesh? How does an "it" have eternal life?
It is no answer at all to any of the four questions asked. Are you beginning to see the flaws in your own reasoning? Is that why you resort to things like "It was manifested"? when each qurestion began with the word How ?
What if God was showing you the truth in this thread? Would you accept it? Would you know it?
Of course you might well ask yourself the same question. But I know that you are not showing me the truth. The first thing it contradicts is who the self revealed God is. The second thing is that it contradicts what God in the Scriptures tells us about mankind.The third thing is that it contradicts our position as creatures ( which you make Jesus to be one of) in relation to Him as our sovereign and creator of all that is. The fourth thing is that it in effect spits on the cross and the glory of the Savior, and as @Mercy_Shown has said has Jesus being created for the sole purpose venting His wrath on. And as Mercy also says, it has a created finite being having the dignity and glory of being able to pay for the sins of all people of all time for all eternity. Maybe what you should do in your "pursuit of truth" is read some of the old school (before this post modern corruption of doctrine) on the atonement---where both satisfaction and bearing the penal code against sin are accomplished in Christ. Maybe you should look at what Jesus actually did, instead of just laying claim to it on a superficial level.
 
A Christian prays to Jesus.


1. A disciple of the Lord = A Christian
Acts 11:26
And when he had found him, he brought him unto Antioch. And it came to pass, that an entire year they assembled themselves with the church, and taught multitudes of people. And the disciples were first called Christians in Antioch.
Acts 9:1
And Saul, yet breathing out threats and murder against the disciples of the Lord, went unto the high priest,


2. Paul wanted to bring these disciples of the Lord/Christians bound to Jerusalem.
Acts 9:2
And desired of him letters to Damascus to the synagogues, that if he found any belonging to the Way, whether they were men or women, he might bring them bound to Jerusalem.


3. A disciple of the Lord/Christian whom Paul wanted to bind is a person who calls on the Name of the Lord Jesus. This means they pray to Jesus.
Acts 9:14
And here he hath authority from the chief priests to bind all who call on Thy Name.
None of them prayed to Jesus. You're still not getting it. Nothing in the Bible says Jesus was actually prayed to. Why do you refuse to obey Jesus's teachings in Matt 6:6,9?
 
No you didn't. You stated your view. That is responding to what I said, but it is not addressing it. If you addressed it in a way that showed it was wrong, that supported your view and refuted what I said, you would be able to demonstrate with exegesis and exposition where I was wrong. What you did in post #308 was a bunch of vain speculations and truly nonsense. And when I addressed those things in posts #332 and338, you simply repeated the same fallacies, never addressing what I said. I actually do address what you say.
In a bible discussion we will talk about our views and then provide the scripture that evidences or proves those beliefs. That is exactly what I am doing. I did demonstrate with exegesis why what I am telling you the Bible says is true. You need to rebuttal me rather than denying I am addressing what you said. What specifically are you referring to?

That is your response to this:
1 John 1:1,2 says the word of life is an it that was manifested. It proves Jesus didn't pre-exist as an actual person because words aren't a person.

It is no answer at all to any of the four questions asked. Are you beginning to see the flaws in your own reasoning? Is that why you resort to things like "It was manifested"? when each qurestion began with the word How ?
John said they handled the word of life and that it was manifested to them. What is not clear about that to you?

Of course you might well ask yourself the same question. But I know that you are not showing me the truth. The first thing it contradicts is who the self revealed God is. The second thing is that it contradicts what God in the Scriptures tells us about mankind.The third thing is that it contradicts our position as creatures ( which you make Jesus to be one of) in relation to Him as our sovereign and creator of all that is.
A bunch of claims with no supporting evidence. Show me otherwise using scripture.

The fourth thing is that it in effect spits on the cross and the glory of the Savior, and as @Mercy_Shown has said has Jesus being created for the sole purpose venting His wrath on. And as Mercy also says, it has a created finite being having the dignity and glory of being able to pay for the sins of all people of all time for all eternity.
God desired mercy, not sacrifice. Sacrificing Jesus wasn't the ideal way, but it was the necessary way because people often cannot receive God's mercy. Seems you don't actually understand the cross, Jesus' sacrifice, etc.

Maybe what you should do in your "pursuit of truth" is read some of the old school (before this post modern corruption of doctrine) on the atonement---where both satisfaction and bearing the penal code against sin are accomplished in Christ. Maybe you should look at what Jesus actually did, instead of just laying claim to it on a superficial level.
My beliefs are accurate and I won't stop posting them.
 
Next time try addressing the evidence I presented.

Thanks again for making this easy for me.
Not my fault you're contradicting Jesus' teachings to pray to the Father in Matt 6:6,9. The verses you quoted don't even mention the word prayer. Do you even know what prayer is??
 
Acts 9 and Acts 11 are still there.
Yes they are still there. You've presented an incredibly weak argument. Seems you're just bolding the word disciples as if they says anything about Jesus being prayed to.
 
Which you failed to demonstrate.



Others words too.
I'm surprised you couldn't see them....but then again....
Bolding random words in verses that are completely unrelated to what we are talking about is laughable. Are you playing connect the dots? I asked you not to derail this thread.
 
No proof for this outlandish assertion.

You excel in believing in things that don't exist.
Bolded the words "disciple" and Christian as some kind of proof for something you are projecting into the Bible. The topic of this thread is that Jesus was never prayed to in the Bible. The verses you quoted above only enhance my point.
 
Bolded the words "disciple" and Christian as some kind of proof for something you are projecting into the Bible. The topic of this thread is that Jesus was never prayed to in the Bible. The verses you quoted above only enhance my point.

They called upon His Name = pray to Jesus.

Simple.
 
They called upon His Name = pray to Jesus.

Simple.
The word prayer is used in the Bible in reference to communicating with God and worshipping God. That's what the Greek says. No where in the Bible is the word prayer used in communicating with Jesus. Twist and distort scripture and string together verses to try to form a doctrine if you wish, but you will never have any sort of explicit directive or example of Jesus being prayed to. You think I opened this thread without doing my homework first? :)
 
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