All things isn't always literal in the Bible. It normally refers to a specific context. Wisdom, balance, and measure is needed to know when and where to apply literalism to words like "all" and "everything" or "the beginning" in the Bible. So let's look at some examples.
The question isn't about the different uses of "all" in this place or that place, or that it does not always mean all without exception. The question is what does it mean in Col 1:16-17
For by Him all things were created that are in heaven and that are on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or powers. All things were created through Him and for Him. And He is before all things, and in Him all things consist.
The passage itself identifies the "all" to mean every single thing created. And look at this. The same thing is said of the Father in Is 44:24
Thus says the Lord, your Redeemer, and He who formed you from the womb: "I am the Lord, who makes all things, who stretches out the heavens all alone, who spreads abroad the earth by Myself;. Does God lie in His word, or are Jesus and the Father One? And is this "all things", is it not everything?
So all your deflecting into grammar has come to nought.
Your believe is that the word (logos) is Jesus where it suits you, but where the word is not Jesus do you have a workaround?
The Word is Jesus in John 1. The Word is Jesus in Rev 19:13. You start this post pointing out that "all" is not always used in the same way and informing us how important it is that we learn (from you as our example?) how to recognize the differences. Then here you turn around and accuse us of doing so, and you are the one who does not differentiate word, from words, from Word. And this still stands and has yet to be addressed. Posted in Jesus was never prayed to-- post #330, posted 2/8. by Arial.
So lets, try again. I will go back to the passages in John 1, and let's find out what the use of logos by John was intended. That is what matters. Not some generic definition of a translation---logos into word. It takes a bit of understanding of the culture in which John was living as a Jew, but a subject of the Roman Empire, surrounded by paganism. The gospel was most likely written around 90 a.d.
Logos of course is a Greek word that in Greek philosophy, referred to logic or reason as an abstract force that brought order and harmony into the universe. In John's writings it was these qualities that he brought gathered in the person of Christ. (Jesus and Christ refer to the incarnation.) In both Greek philosophy and Neo-platonic philosophy of that day, as well as the Gnostic heresy, logos was seen as one of many intermediate powers between God and the world.
John said, no, there is one logos and He was in the beginning (Gen 1) and He was with God, and He was God. And repeats, He was with God in the beginning. And all things were made through Him. he is not using "word" poetically, and he is not using word as respect to speech. ὁ λόγος (John 1:1) which denotes the essential Word of God,i.e. the personal (hypostatic) wisdom and power in union with God, his minister in the creation and government of the universe, the cause of all the world's life both physical and ethical, which for the procurement of man's salvation put on human nature in the person of Jesus the Messiah and shone forth conspiculously from His words and deeds. John 1:1,14; 1 John 5:7) from Strongs.