Why Did God Tell Israel That He is One?

[Mr GLee]

The King James is stuck on solely those manuscripts. Other translations used a plethora of other Greek texts. Hence they differ in places from the King James. Hence the King James only won't have anything to do with other translations. They are corrupt because they used different sources. I do scratch my head as to how you believe any son born on Earth isn't human. I mean, that doesn't follow what we actually observe. Jesus is God's SON. In the LIKENESS OF. What is God's likeness? God.

What you call corrupt seems to have the same kind of undestanding .God is not a man.(dying mankind)

Likeness of eternal God not seen not likeness of dying mankind seen as many gods

Acts 14:7-12 And there they preached the gospel. And there sat a certain man at Lystra, impotent in his feet, being a cripple from his mother's womb, who never had walked: The same heard Paul speak: who stedfastly beholding him, and perceiving that he had faith to be healed,
Said with a loud voice, Stand upright on thy feet. And he leaped and walked. And when the people saw what Paul had done, they lifted up their voices, saying in the speech of Lycaonia, The gods are come down to us in the likeness of men. And they called Barnabas, Jupiter; and Paul, Mercurius, because he was the chief speaker.

 

[Arial]

The Spirit of God, who is God period. God is a Spirit, he is omnipresent, there is no place where God is not present. Unless he desires not to be.

God is spirit. The Holy Spirit, sometimes simply stated as Spirit (not spirit) is always distinguished in his actions in Scripture.

John 4:24​

ESVGod is spirit, and those who worship him must worship in spirit and truth."
NIVGod is spirit, and his worshipers must worship in the Spirit and in truth."
NASBGod is spirit, and those who worship Him must worship in spirit and truth.'

Again KJV only has led you to wrong conclusions. In that passage Jesus is saying this to a woman who though that physical local has a bearing on proper worship of God.

That God is spirit means that God the Father doesn't not have a human body. It means he is invisible. God the Son came to earth in human form. God the Father did not. God the Holy Spirit did not. There are theophanies in the Bible no not incarnations of all three.

The Holy Ghost, who over shallowed Mary and conceived in her, His Son, Jesus. The only begotten Son that we have God's testimony concerning as to WHEN God's Son was conceived and born. Up until then God did not have a Son, only in his eternal purposes did he purpose to have one, which actually took place in Bethlehem Euphrates around two thousand years ago. Was he born, even though his going forth is from everlasting! A truth the Jews did not understand~it was hidden form them, just like it is today toward many.

All due respect, you really rabbit trail in your responses.Yes it was the Holy Spirit (again you have matched KJV only renderings, added "Holy Ghost" to the KJV "God is Spirit" and reached a wrong conclusions) who overshadowed Mary and fathered Jesus. Not God the Father. The One who was conceived as God's Son always existed with the Father. If that is not the case, in the incarnation God divided himself. He is called the Son of God in the incarnation because, 1. God is his Father and no man is his father (not even Adam). and 2. because he walked the earth and made provision for redemption as a man. It is the only way man can be redeemed. God, but also one of those whom he substitutes for.

This One God has chosen to manifest himself as three according to the work of redemption.

God does not just manifest himself. He is himself.

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[Arial]

Thus all other Greek texts were done from Catholicism translating.

I don't think that is true and if it is you need to prove it. Saying anti-trinitarian things by equating them with Catholic doctrine when Protestism broke away from Catholicism in the Reformation. There is a difference between catholic and Catholic, and the catholic (universal) doctrine is established by the NT itself, and it was not always and only the RCC, and it was not always corrupted by them when they did so.

 

[Arial]

The world will find out its not error-Jehovah is the true living God.

You should do some study on the origins of the translation "Jehovah" before making statements like that. Tyndale, who was also unaware of the history of Yahweh is the one who translated it Jehovah in the KJV. And it isn't correct.

 

[TMSO]

The codex sinacticus is the oldest Greek text known( catholicism translating) a very few older fragments are known but not many. Thus all other Greek texts were done from Catholicism translating.

That is quite the assumption.

 

[TMSO]

What you call corrupt seems to have the same kind of undestanding .God is not a man.(dying mankind)

Likeness of eternal God not seen not likeness of dying mankind seen as many gods

Acts 14:7-12 And there they preached the gospel. And there sat a certain man at Lystra, impotent in his feet, being a cripple from his mother's womb, who never had walked: The same heard Paul speak: who stedfastly beholding him, and perceiving that he had faith to be healed,
Said with a loud voice, Stand upright on thy feet. And he leaped and walked. And when the people saw what Paul had done, they lifted up their voices, saying in the speech of Lycaonia, The gods are come down to us in the likeness of men. And they called Barnabas, Jupiter; and Paul, Mercurius, because he was the chief speaker.

That has absolutely nothing to do with what we are talking about.

 

[Mr GLee]

That has absolutely nothing to do with what we are talking about.

Sorry

Yes, the likeness of God, is God. . not man

 

[TMSO]

Sorry

Yes, the likeness of God, is God. . not man

Exactly. Jesus is God, just as the Father and the Son are also God. God is One Being, made up of three coexisting and coeternal persons. Without this understand, Zechariah doesn't make any sense.

 

[Viking123]

I don't think that is true and if it is you need to prove it. Saying anti-trinitarian things by equating them with Catholic doctrine when Protestism broke away from Catholicism in the Reformation. There is a difference between catholic and Catholic, and the catholic (universal) doctrine is established by the NT itself, and it was not always and only the RCC, and it was not always corrupted by them when they did so.

Yes in the 1500,s. Only Catholicism translating remained. Its what the protestants used.

 

[Viking123]

You should do some study on the origins of the translation "Jehovah" before making statements like that. Tyndale, who was also unaware of the history of Yahweh is the one who translated it Jehovah in the KJV. And it isn't correct.

God made his name known.

 

[Viking123]

That is quite the assumption.

Its fact. The Latin Vulgate=Catholicism translating is the other oldest translating. With the Codex sinacticus both done in the 4th century. Write ups say Constantine stole the Codex and altered it. Write ups say the Vulgate was done out of a previous corrupted latin translation.

 

[TrevorL]

Greetings again Viking123,

God made his name known.

Yes, but I have already quoted the 1971 article “Jehovah” in the JW Book Aid to Bible Understanding, pages 882-895 in Post #292. This clearly explains how the erroneous rendition “Jehovah” occurred. Modern JW’s may be blissfully unaware of this information, and the following are two examples of how this is obscured to the modern JW:

JW website article “Who is Jehovah”:
The Bible’s answer
Jehovah is God’s unique name as revealed in the Bible.
The name Jehovah is an English translation of the Hebrew name for God—the four letters יהוה (YHWH), known as the Tetragrammaton. The exact pronunciation of the divine name in ancient Hebrew is not known.
Ancient Hebrew was written without vowels, using only consonants. The Hebrew-speaking reader could easily provide the appropriate vowels. However, after the Hebrew Scriptures (“Old Testament”) were completed, some Jews adopted the superstitious belief that it was wrong to utter God’s personal name. When they read aloud a scripture that contained God’s name, they substituted expressions such as “Lord” or “God.”
Some feel that the divine name was pronounced “Yahweh,” while others suggest different possibilities.

JW book “What Can the Bible Teach Us?”
Chapter 1: Who is God?
Page 12: “God has told us that his name is Jehovah.”

Chapter 15: The right way to worship God
Page 156: “So, as God’s servants we follow Jesus’ example. We worship only Jehovah, we use his name, and we teach others God’s name and what he will do for us.”
Page 158: “After studying these points, ask yourself: Who base their teachings on the Bible? Who tell others about God’s name? Who …? Who …? Who …? It is only Jehovah’s Witnesses Isaiah 43:10-12.”

Kind regards
Trevor

 

[TMSO]

Its fact. The Latin Vulgate=Catholicism translating is the other oldest translating. With the Codex sinacticus both done in the 4th century. Write ups say Constantine stole the Codex and altered it. Write ups say the Vulgate was done out of a previous corrupted latin translation.

Did they change the Old Testament text, considering there are so many? Explain Zechariah.

 

[Viking123]

Greetings again Viking123,


Yes, but I have already quoted the 1971 article “Jehovah” in the JW Book Aid to Bible Understanding, pages 882-895 in Post #292. This clearly explains how the erroneous rendition “Jehovah” occurred. Modern JW’s may be blissfully unaware of this information, and the following are two examples of how this is obscured to the modern JW:

JW website article “Who is Jehovah”:
The Bible’s answer
Jehovah is God’s unique name as revealed in the Bible.
The name Jehovah is an English translation of the Hebrew name for God—the four letters יהוה (YHWH), known as the Tetragrammaton. The exact pronunciation of the divine name in ancient Hebrew is not known.
Ancient Hebrew was written without vowels, using only consonants. The Hebrew-speaking reader could easily provide the appropriate vowels. However, after the Hebrew Scriptures (“Old Testament”) were completed, some Jews adopted the superstitious belief that it was wrong to utter God’s personal name. When they read aloud a scripture that contained God’s name, they substituted expressions such as “Lord” or “God.”
Some feel that the divine name was pronounced “Yahweh,” while others suggest different possibilities.

JW book “What Can the Bible Teach Us?”
Chapter 1: Who is God?
Page 12: “God has told us that his name is Jehovah.”

Chapter 15: The right way to worship God
Page 156: “So, as God’s servants we follow Jesus’ example. We worship only Jehovah, we use his name, and we teach others God’s name and what he will do for us.”
Page 158: “After studying these points, ask yourself: Who base their teachings on the Bible? Who tell others about God’s name? Who …? Who …? Who …? It is only Jehovah’s Witnesses Isaiah 43:10-12.”

Kind regards
Trevor

The whole world will find out 100% his name is Jehovah. It is he who has made his name known, as did Jesus( John 17:6,26)--through the true religion and true followers.

 

[Viking123]

Did they change the Old Testament text, considering there are so many? Explain Zechariah.

There is no i am that i am in the Hebrew written OT--Gods personal name belongs in nearly 6800 places by Gods will. OT==One must take into consideration certain languages didn't have a word that fit another languages word thus some other word was used and replaced it. Altering true meaning.

 

[Arial]

There is no i am that i am in the Hebrew written OT

That's because it wasn't written in English.

 

[Arial]

The whole world will find out 100% his name is Jehovah. It is he who has made his name known, as did Jesus( John 17:6,26)--through the true religion and true followers.

gotquestions.org/Jehovah.html

biblicalarchaeology.org/daily/biblical-artifacts/inscriptions/the-history-of-the-tetragrammaton/

britannica.com/topic/Yahweh

 

[TrevorL]

Greetings again Viking123 and Arial,

The whole world will find out 100% his name is Jehovah. It is he who has made his name known, as did Jesus( John 17:6,26)--through the true religion and true followers.

I will leave you in your conviction that the JWs and their teachings are what they claim. I consider a wiser position is to be objective and see the overall perspective, that the JWs are a sincere movement, attempting to imitate the Apostolic model, but they fail in many aspects in what they do and what they preach. Perhaps one day the bubble will burst or deflate.

There is no i am that i am in the Hebrew written OT

That's because it wasn't written in English.

I consider that "I will be/become who/that I will be/become" is the correct translation of Exodus 3:14 and this is what Tyndale supplied "I wilbe" and is also the alternative in the RV and RSV margins. AB Davidson, the well known Hebrew Scholar, in Hasting's Bible Dictionary also endorses "I will be". Refer also Rotherham's introduction to his "Emphasised Bible" translation where he not only endorses "I will be" but also endorses "Yahweh" and uses this throughout his translation, and he speaks against the erroneous form "Jehovah".

The JWs have also supplied "I will be" in some of their documentation, so on this aspect I consider that they are correct, but some of their exposition of the Yahweh Name is obscure, and their continual insistence on "Jehovah" is incorrect and misleading.

Kind regards
Trevor

 

[TrevorL]

Greetings again Arial,

gotquestions.org/Jehovah.html

biblicalarchaeology.org/daily/biblical-artifacts/inscriptions/the-history-of-the-tetragrammaton/

britannica.com/topic/Yahweh

I found the first article of some benefit but incomplete, the second was interesting but incomplete (I could not access the second with my normal browser, but accessed it with a different browser), and found the third as incomplete on the subject and with some errors.

Kind regards
Trevor