• **Notifications**: Notifications can be dismissed by clicking on the "x" on the righthand side of the notice.
  • **New Style**: You can now change style options. Click on the paintbrush at the bottom of this page.
  • **Donations**: If the Lord leads you please consider helping with monthly costs and up keep on our Forum. Click on the Donate link In the top menu bar. Thanks
  • **New Blog section**: There is now a blog section. Check it out near the Private Debates forum or click on the Blog link in the top menu bar.
  • Welcome Visitors! Join us and be blessed while fellowshipping and celebrating our Glorious Salvation In Christ Jesus.

Why Did God Tell Israel That He is One?

Greetings TMSO,
The Spetuagint is what Jesus and the apostles quoted from, and in the Septuagint, they use the same words Jesus used when He said I Am. If it is good enough for Jesus to quote from, instead of the Hebrew text, is that good enough for you?
The LXX is different to the Hebrew of Exodus 3:14 and is considered a poor translation. Also it does not have God's Name as "I AM" as incorrectly translated by the KJV, but has "THE BEING":
Exodus 3:14 (LXX Brenton): And God spoke to Moses, saying, I am THE BEING; and he said, Thus shall ye say to the children of Israel, THE BEING has sent me to you.

Kind regards
Trevor
 
Exactly. Jesus is God, just as the Father and the Son are also God. God is One Being, made up of three coexisting and coeternal persons. Without this understand, Zechariah doesn't make any sense.

God is not a Jewish man .The goal of Satan to deceive the world he is dying mankind as King of kings

God is one beings as a invisible Spirit that worked in the Son of man Jesus our brother in the Lord to both give ears to hear and a new heart to move .

The key both to will and do. The let there be .

Jesus is not ashamed to call us brothers and sisters.

Matthew 12:50For whosoever shall do the will of my Father which is in heaven, the same is my brother, and sister, and mother.

Mark 3:35For whosoever shall do the will of God, the same is my brother, and my sister, and mother.
 
Greetings TMSO,

The LXX is different to the Hebrew of Exodus 3:14 and is considered a poor translation. Also it does not have God's Name as "I AM" as incorrectly translated by the KJV, but has "THE BEING":
Exodus 3:14 (LXX Brenton): And God spoke to Moses, saying, I am THE BEING; and he said, Thus shall ye say to the children of Israel, THE BEING has sent me to you.

Kind regards
Trevor
I Am the Being.
 
I found the first article of some benefit but incomplete, ....

I found the articles quite interesting. It reminded me of a spiritual baby Christians who first started learning basic apologetics.

Such as:

a). They are shocked to discover that ancient Hebrews has no vowels YHWH, Yahweh, Jehovah, etc.
b). Pagan holidays like Christmas and Easter, but yet, we all enjoy Christmas.
c). Supposed apparent Bible contradictions.
d). The words Trinity and Unitarianism is not found in the Bible.
e). Archeological and Historical proof of Jesus Christ existed.​
 
Greetings again TMSO,
I Am the Being.
As I stated, this is a poor translation of the Hebrew which has the future tense and repeats the word "ehyeh", "ehyeh asher ehyeh". The LXX also in some sense ignores "asher". As such the LXX is an interpretation, not a translation, and it is a poor interpretation. Both the LXX and the KJV translate "ehyeh" in Exodus 3:12 in the future tense as "I will be" and this sets the context that God is not speaking about His existence but the future activity of delivering Israel out of Egypt and into the Promised Land.

Exodus 3:12-14 (LXX Brenton): 12 And God spoke to Moses, saying, I will be with thee, and this shall be the sign to thee that I shall send thee forth,—when thou bringest out my people out of Egypt, then ye shall serve God in this mountain. 13 And Moses said to God, Behold, I shall go forth to the children of Israel, and shall say to them, The God of our fathers has sent me to you; and they will ask me, What is his name? What shall I say to them? 14 And God spoke to Moses, saying, I am THE BEING; and he said, Thus shall ye say to the children of Israel, THE BEING has sent me to you.

Exodus 3:12–14 (KJV): 12 And he said, Certainly I will be with thee; and this shall be a token unto thee, that I have sent thee: When thou hast brought forth the people out of Egypt, ye shall serve God upon this mountain. 13 And Moses said unto God, Behold, when I come unto the children of Israel, and shall say unto them, The God of your fathers hath sent me unto you; and they shall say to me, What is his name? what shall I say unto them? 14 And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.


As my Trinitarian Hebrew instructor stated in front of a disappointed Trinitarian audience, Exodus 3:14 is the future tense "I will be", while the present tense is found in the following:
Exodus 3:6 (KJV): Moreover he said, I am the God of thy father, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob. And Moses hid his face; for he was afraid to look upon God.
Why don't you suggest that Jesus is quoting this, "I am the God of thy father, the God of Abraham" instead of "I Am the Being"?

God further elaborates that the revelation of His Name is associated with the future activity of delivering Israel out of Egypt in the following:
Exodus 6:1–8 (KJV): 1 Then the LORD said unto Moses, Now shalt thou see what I will do to Pharaoh: for with a strong hand shall he let them go, and with a strong hand shall he drive them out of his land. 2 And God spake unto Moses, and said unto him, I am the LORD: 3 And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH was I not known to them. 4 And I have also established my covenant with them, to give them the land of Canaan, the land of their pilgrimage, wherein they were strangers. 5 And I have also heard the groaning of the children of Israel, whom the Egyptians keep in bondage; and I have remembered my covenant. 6 Wherefore say unto the children of Israel, I am the LORD, and I will bring you out from under the burdens of the Egyptians, and I will rid you out of their bondage, and I will redeem you with a stretched out arm, and with great judgments: 7 And I will take you to me for a people, and I will be to you a God: and ye shall know that I am the LORD your God, which bringeth you out from under the burdens of the Egyptians. 8 And I will bring you in unto the land, concerning the which I did swear to give it to Abraham, to Isaac, and to Jacob; and I will give it you for an heritage: I am the LORD.

Kind regards
Trevor
 
Greetings again TMSO,

As I stated, this is a poor translation of the Hebrew which has the future tense and repeats the word "ehyeh", "ehyeh asher ehyeh". The LXX also in some sense ignores "asher". As such the LXX is an interpretation, not a translation, and it is a poor interpretation. Both the LXX and the KJV translate "ehyeh" in Exodus 3:12 in the future tense as "I will be" and this sets the context that God is not speaking about His existence but the future activity of delivering Israel out of Egypt and into the Promised Land.
The LXX is a translation from Hebrew to Greek. Don't tell me you believe that it is still Hebrew? It was also the translation of choice for the New Testament writers. It doesn't change the fact that He basically defined Himself in name by Himself. I Am the Being. Speaking of His state of being. Why? There is nothing in our limited shared experience as humanity that we have experienced that can help us understand who/what He is. In Zechariah, there are passages where Yahweh Himself is speaking, however, it is clearly the Son that it is speaking, not the Father.
Exodus 3:12-14 (LXX Brenton): 12 And God spoke to Moses, saying, I will be with thee, and this shall be the sign to thee that I shall send thee forth,—when thou bringest out my people out of Egypt, then ye shall serve God in this mountain. 13 And Moses said to God, Behold, I shall go forth to the children of Israel, and shall say to them, The God of our fathers has sent me to you; and they will ask me, What is his name? What shall I say to them? 14 And God spoke to Moses, saying, I am THE BEING; and he said, Thus shall ye say to the children of Israel, THE BEING has sent me to you.

Exodus 3:12–14 (KJV): 12 And he said, Certainly I will be with thee; and this shall be a token unto thee, that I have sent thee: When thou hast brought forth the people out of Egypt, ye shall serve God upon this mountain. 13 And Moses said unto God, Behold, when I come unto the children of Israel, and shall say unto them, The God of your fathers hath sent me unto you; and they shall say to me, What is his name? what shall I say unto them? 14 And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.


As my Trinitarian Hebrew instructor stated in front of a disappointed Trinitarian audience, Exodus 3:14 is the future tense "I will be", while the present tense is found in the following:
Exodus 3:6 (KJV): Moreover he said, I am the God of thy father, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob. And Moses hid his face; for he was afraid to look upon God.
Why don't you suggest that Jesus is quoting this, "I am the God of thy father, the God of Abraham" instead of "I Am the Being"?
The same language used by Jesus is used in Exodus in the Septuagint.
God further elaborates that the revelation of His Name is associated with the future activity of delivering Israel out of Egypt in the following:
Exodus 6:1–8 (KJV): 1 Then the LORD said unto Moses, Now shalt thou see what I will do to Pharaoh: for with a strong hand shall he let them go, and with a strong hand shall he drive them out of his land. 2 And God spake unto Moses, and said unto him, I am the LORD: 3 And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH was I not known to them. 4 And I have also established my covenant with them, to give them the land of Canaan, the land of their pilgrimage, wherein they were strangers. 5 And I have also heard the groaning of the children of Israel, whom the Egyptians keep in bondage; and I have remembered my covenant. 6 Wherefore say unto the children of Israel, I am the LORD, and I will bring you out from under the burdens of the Egyptians, and I will rid you out of their bondage, and I will redeem you with a stretched out arm, and with great judgments: 7 And I will take you to me for a people, and I will be to you a God: and ye shall know that I am the LORD your God, which bringeth you out from under the burdens of the Egyptians. 8 And I will bring you in unto the land, concerning the which I did swear to give it to Abraham, to Isaac, and to Jacob; and I will give it you for an heritage: I am the LORD.
Which has nothing to do with whether this God has an existence of three persons that are coexisting and coeternal. Even math shows that this is possible, thanks to the Greeks and their theory of infinity.
four sets of numbers. 1 to infinity counting up. Second set. 1,4,8,11... to infinity. Third set. 2,5,9,12...infinity. Fourth set. 3,6,10,13... infinity. All the number in the last three sets are found in the first set, and all four sets contain the same amount of numbers. Infinite. God is one BEING, as I says "THE BEING" has sent you. This BEING is made up of three persons, three distinct yet coexisting persons. Distinct in that each has a title, Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. They coexist, are coeteral, and are in perfect harmony/unity/fellowship. And for our understanding, as we are incapable of fully understanding, they are presented distinctly in scripture, though in the Old Testament, before Jesus came to Earth, God presented Himself as God, as the One Being. You catch glimpses of the trinity throughout the Old Testament, and even Jesus pointed out some of these.

You do bring up a point though. Even when speaking in the future tense, God is always in the present tense. Even when speaking in the past, God is always in the present tense. Even when Jesus spoke in the past tense, He spoke of Himself in the present.
 
That's because it wasn't written in English.
Yes i know. That Hebrew passage translates-i will be what i will be to English, not i am that i am. Jerome used a corrupted latin translation of the OT to make his Vulgate, that is probably why the error is in most translations.
 
Greetings again Viking123 and Arial,

I will leave you in your conviction that the JWs and their teachings are what they claim. I consider a wiser position is to be objective and see the overall perspective, that the JWs are a sincere movement, attempting to imitate the Apostolic model, but they fail in many aspects in what they do and what they preach. Perhaps one day the bubble will burst or deflate.


I consider that "I will be/become who/that I will be/become" is the correct translation of Exodus 3:14 and this is what Tyndale supplied "I wilbe" and is also the alternative in the RV and RSV margins. AB Davidson, the well known Hebrew Scholar, in Hasting's Bible Dictionary also endorses "I will be". Refer also Rotherham's introduction to his "Emphasised Bible" translation where he not only endorses "I will be" but also endorses "Yahweh" and uses this throughout his translation, and he speaks against the erroneous form "Jehovah".

The JWs have also supplied "I will be" in some of their documentation, so on this aspect I consider that they are correct, but some of their exposition of the Yahweh Name is obscure, and their continual insistence on "Jehovah" is incorrect and misleading.

Kind regards
Trevor
God will show the world--They will have to know-i am Jehovah.
Hallelujah translates-praise be to Jehovah---- Elijah translates--El( Elohim) is Jehovah.
 
The Spetuagint is what Jesus and the apostles quoted from, and in the Septuagint, they use the same words Jesus used when He said I Am. If it is good enough for Jesus to quote from, instead of the Hebrew text, is that good enough for you?
Jesus didn't have the NT while on Earth. He stated i am in the NT.--Alls he did was answer the Pharisees honestly-I am= i lived before Abraham. Those pharisees were apostatized, Jesus told them-your Father is the devil. They never said a truth about Jesus, yet your religionssssssssss believe them in that instance--Do you believe them here as well-Matt 12:24. Jesus as well warned those who believe their words-Matt 23: 13
 
Greetings again Viking123,
God will show the world--They will have to know-i am Jehovah.
I appreciate your persistence and slightly misguided statement. You continue to endorse "Jehovah" which is an erroneous rendition of YHWH. I also find it interesting where the expression "they shall know that I am the LORD (YHWH)":
Ezekiel 38:17–23 (KJV): 17 Thus saith the Lord GOD; Art thou he of whom I have spoken in old time by my servants the prophets of Israel, which prophesied in those days many years that I would bring thee against them? 18 And it shall come to pass at the same time when Gog shall come against the land of Israel, saith the Lord GOD, that my fury shall come up in my face. 19 For in my jealousy and in the fire of my wrath have I spoken, Surely in that day there shall be a great shaking in the land of Israel; 20 So that the fishes of the sea, and the fowls of the heaven, and the beasts of the field, and all creeping things that creep upon the earth, and all the men that are upon the face of the earth, shall shake at my presence, and the mountains shall be thrown down, and the steep places shall fall, and every wall shall fall to the ground. 21 And I will call for a sword against him throughout all my mountains, saith the Lord GOD: every man’s sword shall be against his brother. 22 And I will plead against him with pestilence and with blood; and I will rain upon him, and upon his bands, and upon the many people that are with him, an overflowing rain, and great hailstones, fire, and brimstone. 23 Thus will I magnify myself, and sanctify myself; and I will be known in the eyes of many nations, and they shall know that I am the LORD.

What I find interesting is that Ezekiel 38 speaks about the return of the Jews to the Holy Land, a teaching that JWs deny, and then it talks about the outcome of an invasion by a King from the North. The JWs deny the outcome stated that Israel will be converted and the nations subdued. Rather than the nations learning that God is YHWH, they believe that all the nations will be destroyed and only JWs will survive.

Kind regards
Trevor
 
Greetings again TMSO,
The LXX is a translation from Hebrew to Greek. Don't tell me you believe that it is still Hebrew?
The original words were recorded by Moses in Hebrew. The LXX is a translation in Greek made many 100's of years after the original Hebrew, and as a translation this needs to be carefully compared with the Hebrew text. The LXX has many shortcomings as a translation, and I claim especially here, in Exodus 3:14.
It was also the translation of choice for the New Testament writers.
Perhaps you should consult Barne's Notes on the OT. In his introduction to Isaiah, he lists what source the various NT writers and speakers when quoting from the numerous Isaiah passages. Some are based on the Hebrew text, some on the LXX and some are possibly from another source. Did Jesus ever speak to the Jews in Greek? When Jesus read the Scripture in the Synagogue in Nazareth, was he reading the Hebrew Scriptures or the LXX?
It doesn't change the fact that He basically defined Himself in name by Himself. I Am the Being. Speaking of His state of being. Why? There is nothing in our limited shared experience as humanity that we have experienced that can help us understand who/what He is.
I disagree that "I am the BEING" is a correct or a good translation of the Hebrew "Ehyeh Asher Ehyeh". Also I consider that John 8:58 should be translated as "I am he", the same as John 8:24 and John 8:28, part of the theme in John's Gospel as to whether or not Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God.
The same language used by Jesus is used in Exodus in the Septuagint.
Jesus did not speak in Greek in John 8:58.
Which has nothing to do with whether this God has an existence of three persons that are coexisting and coeternal.
I believe that there is One God, Yahweh, God the Father and our Lord Jesus Christ is the Son of God.

Kind regards
Trevor
 
Yes i know. That Hebrew passage translates-i will be what i will be to English, not i am that i am. Jerome used a corrupted latin translation of the OT to make his Vulgate, that is probably why the error is in most translations.
It does not change who God is either way.
 
It does not change who God is either way.
They use Jesus saying i am to the pharisees falsely because of that mistranslated statement. He only answered them honestly-he existed before Abraham.
 
Greetings again Viking123,

I appreciate your persistence and slightly misguided statement. You continue to endorse "Jehovah" which is an erroneous rendition of YHWH. I also find it interesting where the expression "they shall know that I am the LORD (YHWH)":
Ezekiel 38:17–23 (KJV): 17 Thus saith the Lord GOD; Art thou he of whom I have spoken in old time by my servants the prophets of Israel, which prophesied in those days many years that I would bring thee against them? 18 And it shall come to pass at the same time when Gog shall come against the land of Israel, saith the Lord GOD, that my fury shall come up in my face. 19 For in my jealousy and in the fire of my wrath have I spoken, Surely in that day there shall be a great shaking in the land of Israel; 20 So that the fishes of the sea, and the fowls of the heaven, and the beasts of the field, and all creeping things that creep upon the earth, and all the men that are upon the face of the earth, shall shake at my presence, and the mountains shall be thrown down, and the steep places shall fall, and every wall shall fall to the ground. 21 And I will call for a sword against him throughout all my mountains, saith the Lord GOD: every man’s sword shall be against his brother. 22 And I will plead against him with pestilence and with blood; and I will rain upon him, and upon his bands, and upon the many people that are with him, an overflowing rain, and great hailstones, fire, and brimstone. 23 Thus will I magnify myself, and sanctify myself; and I will be known in the eyes of many nations, and they shall know that I am the LORD.

What I find interesting is that Ezekiel 38 speaks about the return of the Jews to the Holy Land, a teaching that JWs deny, and then it talks about the outcome of an invasion by a King from the North. The JWs deny the outcome stated that Israel will be converted and the nations subdued. Rather than the nations learning that God is YHWH, they believe that all the nations will be destroyed and only JWs will survive.

Kind regards
Trevor
I know my teachers are correct.
 
They use Jesus saying i am to the pharisees falsely because of that mistranslated statement. He only answered them honestly-he existed before Abraham.
Who is "they"?
 
I know my teachers are correct.

How many LORDs do you believe in? Remember the Bible explicitly says, "One Lord, Jesus Christ." (1 Corinthians 8:6, "one Lord" Ephesians 4:5, "same Lord" 1 Corinthians 12:5, "Christ is all, and is in all" Colossians 3:11, "and deny Jesus Christ our only Sovereign and Lord" Jude 1:4, "true Sovereign and Lord" Revelations 6:10). Why won't you then exclude out the Father or even restrict and isolate the Son as the sole person of the Lord?

2 Peter 1:1 "Our God and Savior Jesus Christ" is explicit and direct statement. Also, in 2 Peter 1:11, 2:20, 2:18 "our LORD and Savior Jesus Christ" is explicit and direct statements too.​

Of course, the Unitarians would say, "Well, this verse says the Father is Lord too." unwitting a Unitarian would be affirming the Trinity doctrine. But in the strictest sense, the Bible explicitly says, "One Lord, Jesus Christ." How many lords do Unitarians have? They are doing what Trinitarians do by pointing out that, "the Son is the Lord and the Father is also that Lord." In the same manner, a Trinitarian would say, "This verse says the Son is God." But, of course, the Bible explicitly says, "One God, the Father" if taken in the strictest sense. Trinitarians can easily use Unitarians method, then Unitarians have to use Trinitarian's counterargument to show that the Father is also that Lord too. But unwitty they are affirming the Trinity doctrine.
 
They use Jesus saying i am to the pharisees falsely because of that mistranslated statement. He only answered them honestly-he existed before Abraham.
Reminds me of one the think not doctrines.

Abraham spiritual understanding meaning heavenly father of all the nations after his name change from Abram (father of one family) to reflect born again as the second born seed which began with Enoch.

Previously Abram father of one family (earthly)

Matthew 3:9 And think not to say within yourselves, We have Abraham/Peter to our father: for I say unto you, that God is able of these stones to raise up children unto Abraham \Peter

The outward Jew had their faith or belief system after earthy Abraham as if he was our heavenly Father ' The same could be exchanged with Peter . The Catholic Holy dying Father simply changes it from Abraham to Peter

Catholicism the New Testament Pharisees.

God is not a man neither could he be.

A Jew is not one outwardly according to dying flesh but is one inwardly born-again Christian

Roman2: 28 For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh: But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; (death) whose praise is not of men, but of God.

Same with the word Isreal not all Iseral is born again Isreal

Romans 9:6 Not as though the word of God hath taken none effect. For they are not all Israel, which are of (born again) Israel:

Romans 11:26 And so all (Born again) Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob: (the other non-converted Israel)

Christian the new name the father promised to rename his wife in Isaiah 62,

Christian a more befitting name to name the bride of all the nations. Literally meaning "Residents of the heavenly city of Christ " prepared for his bride the church. Named after its founder and husband Christ.(Revelation 21)

One word that has lost much influence. This world turning Christian into a derogatory word and not a blessing as designed.

Christians can make it great again. . sound the Trump

Some Jews tried to use their DNA card to get into Christian fellowship. Same law applies. Not all that call themself Christian are born again. Not as though the word of God has taken no effect.

Revelation 2:9I know thy works, and tribulation, and poverty, (but thou art rich) and I know the blasphemy of them which say they are Jews, and are not, but are the synagogue of Satan.

Revelation 3:9Behold, I will make them of the synagogue of Satan, which say they are Jews, and are not, but do lie; behold, I will make them to come and worship before thy feet, and to know that I have loved thee.
 
How many LORDs do you believe in? Remember the Bible explicitly says, "One Lord, Jesus Christ." (1 Corinthians 8:6, "one Lord" Ephesians 4:5, "same Lord" 1 Corinthians 12:5, "Christ is all, and is in all" Colossians 3:11, "and deny Jesus Christ our only Sovereign and Lord" Jude 1:4, "true Sovereign and Lord" Revelations 6:10). Why won't you then exclude out the Father or even restrict and isolate the Son as the sole person of the Lord?

2 Peter 1:1 "Our God and Savior Jesus Christ" is explicit and direct statement. Also, in 2 Peter 1:11, 2:20, 2:18 "our LORD and Savior Jesus Christ" is explicit and direct statements too.​

Of course, the Unitarians would say, "Well, this verse says the Father is Lord too." unwitting a Unitarian would be affirming the Trinity doctrine. But in the strictest sense, the Bible explicitly says, "One Lord, Jesus Christ." How many lords do Unitarians have? They are doing what Trinitarians do by pointing out that, "the Son is the Lord and the Father is also that Lord." In the same manner, a Trinitarian would say, "This verse says the Son is God." But, of course, the Bible explicitly says, "One God, the Father" if taken in the strictest sense. Trinitarians can easily use Unitarians method, then Unitarians have to use Trinitarian's counterargument to show that the Father is also that Lord too. But unwitty they are affirming the Trinity doctrine.
Jehovah is sovereign Lord, He is over Jesus---Jesus told you--The Father is greater than i.
 
Reminds me of one the think not doctrines.

Abraham spiritual understanding meaning heavenly father of all the nations after his name change from Abram (father of one family) to reflect born again as the second born seed which began with Enoch.

Previously Abram father of one family (earthly)

Matthew 3:9 And think not to say within yourselves, We have Abraham/Peter to our father: for I say unto you, that God is able of these stones to raise up children unto Abraham \Peter

The outward Jew had their faith or belief system after earthy Abraham as if he was our heavenly Father ' The same could be exchanged with Peter . The Catholic Holy dying Father simply changes it from Abraham to Peter

Catholicism the New Testament Pharisees.

God is not a man neither could he be.

A Jew is not one outwardly according to dying flesh but is one inwardly born-again Christian

Roman2: 28 For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh: But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; (death) whose praise is not of men, but of God.

Same with the word Isreal not all Iseral is born again Isreal

Romans 9:6 Not as though the word of God hath taken none effect. For they are not all Israel, which are of (born again) Israel:

Romans 11:26 And so all (Born again) Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob: (the other non-converted Israel)

Christian the new name the father promised to rename his wife in Isaiah 62,

Christian a more befitting name to name the bride of all the nations. Literally meaning "Residents of the heavenly city of Christ " prepared for his bride the church. Named after its founder and husband Christ.(Revelation 21)

One word that has lost much influence. This world turning Christian into a derogatory word and not a blessing as designed.

Christians can make it great again. . sound the Trump

Some Jews tried to use their DNA card to get into Christian fellowship. Same law applies. Not all that call themself Christian are born again. Not as though the word of God has taken no effect.

Revelation 2:9I know thy works, and tribulation, and poverty, (but thou art rich) and I know the blasphemy of them which say they are Jews, and are not, but are the synagogue of Satan.

Revelation 3:9Behold, I will make them of the synagogue of Satan, which say they are Jews, and are not, but do lie; behold, I will make them to come and worship before thy feet, and to know that I have loved thee.
Catholicism=2Thess 2:3 and all her branches.
Only the little flock = the anointed bride=144,000( Luke 12:32) Rev 14:3)- These are the ones to sit on thrones( Rev 1:6, Rev 20:6) It was to these Jesus made a covenant with the night of the Lords supper( Luke 22:29-30) Only they are to partake of the two emblems.
 
Back
Top