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Understanding the The 1000 Year Millennium in Prophecy

I know his opinion.
So do I but others might like to compare for their presentation match to yours.

As you know their opinions are fully from the Holy Book also.
 
So do I but others might like to compare for their presentation match to yours.

As you know their opinions are fully from the Holy Book also.
No problem
 
@3 Resurrections ... all three parts but thought this interesting as I have not heard it put this way before. Looking for your opinion.

Please note what I bolded and enlarged in blue in part 1.
eatingpopcornsmiley.gif
when we practice sound biblical hermeneutics, it becomes clear from the scriptures that Satan was bound by the victory of Christ on the cross.
This above statement by Red is wrong. Red is not paying careful enough attention to the very text in Matthew 12:29 he is emphasizing. This makes his interpretation exactly opposite to what Christ was saying. Satan was NOT bound at the cross. He was bound far earlier than that. In fact, Satan had already been bound even before Christ was confronted by the Pharisees in Matthew 12:24.

When Christ was accused of casting out devils by the power of Beelzebub, His answer was to ask the Pharisees, "how can one enter into a strong man's house, and spoil his goods, except he FIRST bind the strong man? and then he will spoil his house." Red is correct to emphasize this word "FIRST", but he has the timing of it wrong.

Christ was then at that moment demonstrating the "spoiling" of Satan's "goods" by His casting out devils. He could do this because He had ALREADY "FIRST" bound Satan, even before that point in time. The proof that this binding of Satan was in the past was being demonstrated by Christ's then-present power over Satan and his devils.

Christ did not wait until the crucifixion to bind Satan. In fact, it was at Christ resurrection-day ascension that Satan's binding was stopped (at the close of the millennium). It was at Christ's resurrection-day ascension that Satan's deception of the nations was once again renewed. Satan and all his devils were cast out of heaven down to earth after the war in heaven found in Revelation 12, when his ability to accuse the brethren had just been annulled at that point. John was warning the first-century believers that Satan had already come down into the world again with his devils, and was working in great wrath, knowing he had only a "short time" left to deceive the nations (Rev. 12:12).

The NT scriptures are replete with warnings about Satan's deception operating in those first-century days.

Such as 2 Cor. 4:4, "In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them."

Such as 2 Timothy 2:25-26, "In meekness instructing those that oppose themselves, if God peradventure will give them repentance to the acknowledging of the truth; And that they may recover themselves out of the snare of the devil, who are taken captive by him at his will."

Such as the example of the armor of God in Ephesians 6:12-18, which was necessary for the saints to stand against the "wiles of the devil" against whom they were wrestling in those days when Satan's "short time" of activity in this world had not yet expired.

And ironically, in the midst of all the symbolic language here, they take exception to this thousand years being understood any other way but a literal length of time.
This is another point where we disagree, Red, since the millennium is said to "expire" and be "finished" at a certain point when the "First resurrection" takes place. This is speaking of a single, set point on the calendar for the millennium to come to an end. There are many other quite literal numbers in Revelation, so it is not necessary to make all numbers be symbolic, simply because you think they ought to be.
 
You failed the question ! Which I knew you would based upon you premillennialism beliefs.


Paul’s Order of Events by​

Holy Spirit Inspiration​


Deceivers Who Reverse the​

Order of the Holy Spirit​

Tim LaHayeHal LindseyBilly GrahamBob Jones
C.I. ScofieldClarence LarkinBenny HinnJack Van Impe
John WalvoordSalem KirbanJohn DarbyE.W. Bullinger
Donald BarnhouseH.A. IronsideLewis S. ChaferOliver Green
Dwight L. MoodyJohn HageeJerry B. JenkinsChuck Swindoll


What will you do? Fear men and follow their speculations? Or fear God and believe His apostles writing by inspiration? Paul strictly warned against this deception. You should confront any pastor that teaches Jesus Christ will return before the Antichrist comes to power. He is defying New Testament doctrine. He is defying Paul and the Holy Ghost. He has rejected the Bible. He is teaching a doctrine unknown before 1830. He is protecting the identity of the real Antichrist, which has been here a long time now since the beginning.
2 Thes 2...1 Now concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered together to him, we ask you, brothers, 2 not to be quickly shaken in mind or alarmed, either by a spirit or a spoken word, or a letter seeming to be from us, to the effect that the day of the Lord has come. 3 Let no one deceive you in any way. For that day will not come, unless the rebellion comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction.

Some translations translate the word as "rebellion". Some use "apostasy". Some use "falling away". Some use "revolt"....some use "departure"
The Geneva bible of 1587 used the word departure. Departure, derived from "aphistémi" as when you get on a train and "depart"...leave.

So, what happened? The RC Church in an attempt to demonize the protestant reformation chose to use the translation of the word apostasia derived from "aphistémi" as some form of rebellion. They changed the translations to a different nuance of the word. They then said this verse was about the protestant reformation and labeled them as apostate.

2 Thes 2:1 presented above tells us there will be a gathering together of Christians...the rapture...and the following verses speak of them departing.....THEN, the anti-Christ is revealed.

In a sense I think it would be interesting to see the ant-Christ revealed and come to power...but the bible says the christians will not be here for that event. The Christians are not destined for the wrath of the tribulation.

Pauls inspired writing was correct. It's your interpretation that is incorrect.
 
So, what happened? The RC Church in an attempt to demonize the protestant reformation chose to use the translation of the word apostasia derived from "aphistémi" as some form of rebellion. They changed the translations to a different nuance of the word. They then said this verse was about the protestant reformation and labeled them as apostate.
I'm not interested what the RCC teaches, because here it has no bearing upon the truth here taught in 2nd Thessalonians 2.

When you read the first three verses, then it is clear which comes first~it is the man of sin/antichrist that is revealed before our gathering together unto Christ. This one point destroys the premillennialist doctrine, and should cause them to rethink their false system of eschatology.

We are to take heed and let no man deceive us by any means~the Lord Jesus gave the the very same warning when speaking on the same subject.

Matthew 24:4​


“And Jesus answered and said unto them, Take heed that no man deceive you.”
 
This above statement by Red is wrong. Red is not paying careful enough attention to the very text in Matthew 12:29 he is emphasizing. This makes his interpretation exactly opposite to what Christ was saying. Satan was NOT bound at the cross. He was bound far earlier than that. In fact, Satan had already been bound even before Christ was confronted by the Pharisees in Matthew 12:24.
Wishingful thinking on your part. I know you believe that Satan was bound back during the days of Solomon, or,thereabouts~and totally destroyed along with all evil spirits at 70 A.D., leaving this whole NT period free of evil spirits. Borderline of Saduceesism. Think about it~Satan being bound at this world's greatest act of wickedness, crucifying the Lord of Glory.

When Christ was accused of casting out devils by the power of Beelzebub, His answer was to ask the Pharisees, "how can one enter into a strong man's house, and spoil his goods, except he FIRST bind the strong man? and then he will spoil his house." Red is correct to emphasize this word "FIRST", but he has the timing of it wrong.

Christ was then at that moment demonstrating the "spoiling" of Satan's "goods" by His casting out devils. He could do this because He had ALREADY "FIRST" bound Satan, even before that point in time. The proof that this binding of Satan was in the past was being demonstrated by Christ's then-present power over Satan and his devils.
The Lord was saying that his power to cast out devils was not from the prince of the devils, for then his house would have been divided! Christ had power of all unclean spirits being the Son of God~but, he was soon to leave this world and in order for this work to be carried on, into religions where the power of Satan had reigned for thousands of years, where the Gentiles nations lived, Satan had to be bound by a stronger person than he was.
 
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Christ did not wait until the crucifixion to bind Satan. In fact, it was at Christ resurrection-day ascension that Satan's binding was stopped (at the close of the millennium). It was at Christ's resurrection-day ascension that Satan's deception of the nations was once again renewed.
I had to start another post since somehow I messed up on the last one, so I started all over.

So wrong~Once again renewed? Not hardly! The Gentiles nations have been under the power of the devil from the beginning, and still were as Paul and other went forth from Jerusalem to turn them from the power of darkness unto the light in the Lord.

It was at Christ's resurrection-day ascension that Satan's deception of the nations was once again renewed
Once again renewed? Actually you have it totally backwards~At Christ's resurrection, the apostles went forth riding the white horse turning up Northwest from Jerusalem heading into the Gentiles nations with the gospel of Jesus Christ conquering, delivering souls from the power of the devil!

The NT scriptures are replete with warnings about Satan's deception operating in those first-century days.

Such as 2 Cor. 4:4, "In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them."

Such as 2 Timothy 2:25-26, "In meekness instructing those that oppose themselves, if God peradventure will give them repentance to the acknowledging of the truth; And that they may recover themselves out of the snare of the devil, who are taken captive by him at his will."

Such as the example of the armor of God in Ephesians 6:12-18, which was necessary for the saints to stand against the "wiles of the devil" against whom they were wrestling in those days when Satan's "short time" of activity in this world had not yet expired.
But your preterits theology rubber stamps all these scriptures fulfilled in 70 A.D. and according to you and them, these same scriptures applies not to us in our days!


 
The NT scriptures are replete with warnings about Satan's deception operating in those first-century days.

Such as 2 Cor. 4:4, "In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them."

Such as 2 Timothy 2:25-26, "In meekness instructing those that oppose themselves, if God peradventure will give them repentance to the acknowledging of the truth; And that they may recover themselves out of the snare of the devil, who are taken captive by him at his will."

Such as the example of the armor of God in Ephesians 6:12-18, which was necessary for the saints to stand against the "wiles of the devil" against whom they were wrestling in those days when Satan's "short time" of activity in this world had not yet expired.
3 R's~according to you and others who embrace Pretertism, these scriptures are now obsolete ~ no longer needed for us in our days, correct? Actually, much of the NT is obsolete all according to who you talk to.

The truth is this~demon activity will increase greatly as this world comes to its end according to the word of God. The scriptures speaks expressly concerning the last days of this world, But, according to you and others, men are more wicked than Satan and his angels.


This agrees with Matthew 24; 2nd Thessalonians 2; Revelation 7-20, etc. More later.....RB
 
This is another point where we disagree, Red, since the millennium is said to "expire" and be "finished" at a certain point when the "First resurrection" takes place. This is speaking of a single, set point on the calendar for the millennium to come to an end. There are many other quite literal numbers in Revelation, so it is not necessary to make all numbers be symbolic, simply because you think they ought to be.
The scriptures do not teach that the thousand years expires when the first resurrection takes place, that's you take, not the scriptures.

Revelation 20:5​


“But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection.”

Those who did not experience the first resurrection do not live until the thousand years are finished~So, the scriptures said...This is the first resurrection.” Which goes back back to this verse:

Revelation 20:4​


“And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.”

Which we will come back and consider in depth.

But, first Revelation 20:3.....RB
 
VERSE THREE of Revelation 20..........
  • "And cast him into the bottomless pit, and shut him up, and set a seal upon him, that he should deceive the nations no more, till the thousand years should be fulfilled, and after that he must be loosed a little season".
Revelation chapter 20 is not speaking of literal objects or times, it is speaking in symbolic terms of very literal happenings and time. There is a difference! It is using symbolic words which man will recognize as representations of what is happening. i.e., the chain is not a literal chain, it represents or signifies restraint, the key is not a literal key, it represents or signifies authority and ability, etc. All we have to do is look at the rest of the chapter to clearly see this. This angel didn't come down from heaven with a literal key. This Angel didn't come with a literal great Chain. Satan cannot be bound with a literal Chain nor locked up with a literal lock. Satan is a spirit being. He must be restrained spiritually by God Himself. Rather than literal, this Language is representative Spiritual language to illustrate binding, and securing, and the the key illustrates He has the power and authority to keep bound, or to unlock and set loose. This truly should not even be debatable.

So if we are not talking about strictly literal things here, what would make anyone think that the 1000 years must be a literal number of years anymore than the chain to hold Satan that 1000 years was a literal chain? The answer is Nothing! Nothing except Church tradition or teachings. It's not literal years! We understand this number 1000 to be symbolic to show us that Satan is being restrained so that he cannot bring this great iniquity and deceive the nations "for the fullness of God's time." Likewise, the bottomless pit or Abyss signifies a void place of nothing, as fathomless as can be imagined, to hold a spirit. So why would we pick the 1000 years out of all these symbolic terms and say it must be taken literally or else we are in gross error? It makes no sense! The main reason that some Theologians take this tact is that they have been taught the Jewish tradition that when Christ comes, He's going to free the earthly captivity, bring earthly peace, and reign literally on this earth. Believing this, they seek to discredit any view that Christ won't reign on the earth in literal (the middle east) jerusalem.

Nevertheless, this view is contrary to all other clear passages in scripture. When Christ returns, it will be to gather His people in the heavens to meet Him in the air (commonly called the Rapture), raise the unsaved to stand for Judgment, and to cast Satan in the lake of fire. All scripture consistently indicates this takes place at "The Last Day" and at "The Last Trumpet". There is no 1000 year reign on earth at the second advent of Christ. Believers reign with Christ "now" having been translated from the Satan's power of darkness, into this kingdom of Christ. Either that is true, or it is a lie. There is no in between.

A thousand years illustrate an unspecified length of time. And of course, it "MUST" be, for God is not interested in notifying the world of the precise actual length of time which Satan is bound (since we know the start of his binding was at the cross). It is to be a mystery to the unfaithful that he is even loosed. They will be eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage because they are unaware that satan is loosed. The Spiritual number 1000 years signifies until "the fulness of time."

We have mentioned this already but once more would be helpful: When we study scripture we will find that God often uses certain number relationships to signify things. the number 12 representing the congregation, as in the 12 stars, the 12 tribes of Israel, the 12 Apostles, the 12 gates of the city, etc., or the number 7 and it's multiples, 70, 700, 7000 as the "Totality" of whatever is in view. And in this same way the number 10, 100, 1000 is likewise used in a spiritual sense to signifies the fullness of whatever is being spoken about. As an example, as you might say to your wife, "I'll love you for a thousand years". You're not literally putting a number on the time, rather, you're expressing the "fullness" of your Love for her. The 1000 is a symbolic length of time to indicate you'll love her from now till the fullness of time. Whatever that time may literally be, whether it be 10 years, 30 years 63 years, whatever it may be is symbolized by the use of the term a thousand years. And God uses this number in that way in scripture. It is used here in this sense "Totality" of whatever is in view.

Again
, we have signs and symbols representing spiritual realities in this chapter (Revelation 1:1). The Holy Spirit began the book by telling us about signs, so we should not be foolish literalists! What is a bottomless pit? Sort of like a bottomless glass or salad? Or is it an inescapable pit! What kind of a door holds a spirit being, and what kind of a seal keeps him from escaping? These signs indicate heavenly authority restricting the devil from universal hatred of the gospel.

After Christ’s first coming, Satan no longer had dominion over the nations to prohibit the gospel. Note very carefully that the binding of Satan is from deceiving the nations – not from activity! Satan had power over the nations, but Jesus Christ took it away as King of kings over all angels and devils (Dan 10:13,20-21; Luke 4:5-8; John 14:30; Act 10:38; Eph 1:20-23; 2:2; II Cor 4:4)! Jesus had prophesied to His apostles that the gates of hell could not stop them (Matthew 16:19). Before He charged them with all nations, He reminded them of His power (Matthew 28:19-20). They took this great power and preached everywhere (Mark 16:14-20; Acts 1:8; Heb 2:1-4). This fulfilled ancient promises made to Abraham about his influence in all nations (Gal 3:8). This fulfilled ancient prophecies made about Gentiles seeing great light (Is 9:1-2; 49:6; 60:1-3). S much more could be added, enough for now.
 
2 Thes 2...1 Now concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered together to him, we ask you, brothers, 2 not to be quickly shaken in mind or alarmed, either by a spirit or a spoken word, or a letter seeming to be from us, to the effect that the day of the Lord has come. 3 Let no one deceive you in any way. For that day will not come, unless the rebellion comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction.

Some translations translate the word as "rebellion". Some use "apostasy". Some use "falling away". Some use "revolt"....some use "departure"
The Geneva bible of 1587 used the word departure. Departure, derived from "aphistémi" as when you get on a train and "depart"...leave.

So, what happened? The RC Church in an attempt to demonize the protestant reformation chose to use the translation of the word apostasia derived from "aphistémi" as some form of rebellion. They changed the translations to a different nuance of the word. They then said this verse was about the protestant reformation and labeled them as apostate.

2 Thes 2:1 presented above tells us there will be a gathering together of Christians...the rapture...and the following verses speak of them departing.....THEN, the anti-Christ is revealed.

In a sense I think it would be interesting to see the ant-Christ revealed and come to power...but the bible says the christians will not be here for that event. The Christians are not destined for the wrath of the tribulation.

Pauls inspired writing was correct. It's your interpretation that is incorrect.
I would offer. .

Satan the man of lawlessness. the antichrist the spirit of error that works in many antichrists' False apostle false prophets. Satan the man of sin has been revealed through all the antichrists' false prophets false apostle's .Using Peter our brother in the lord as a seral denier

Rebuked the unseen head Christ forbidding the Son of man Jesus from doing the good pleasure of his father, Christ

Mathew 16: 22 Then Peter took him, and began to rebuke him, saying, Be it far from thee, Lord: this shall not be unto thee. But he turned, and said unto Peter, Get thee behind me, Satan: thou art an offence unto me: for thou savourest not the things that be of God, but those that be of men.

Satan the man of sin Trying to deceive dying mankind he is a Jewish man as King of kings . The veil was rent there was no Jewish man as King of kings .

Satan could no longer deceive all the nation of the world that God is a Jewish man as King of king (Revelation 20:3 the fulfilment.) . . . . that he should deceive the nations no more
 
I'm not interested what the RCC teaches, because here it has no bearing upon the truth here taught in 2nd Thessalonians 2.

When you read the first three verses, then it is clear which comes first~it is the man of sin/antichrist that is revealed before our gathering together unto Christ. This one point destroys the premillennialist doctrine, and should cause them to rethink their false system of eschatology.


We are to take heed and let no man deceive us by any means~the Lord Jesus gave the the very same warning when speaking on the same subject.

Matthew 24:4​


“And Jesus answered and said unto them, Take heed that no man deceive you.”
Nope....rapture first...
 
Nope....rapture first...
Make a list of what actually happens on the Day of the Lord’s return. Forget about any presuppositions and just make a list.
 
The scriptures do not teach that the thousand years expires when the first resurrection takes place, that's you take, not the scriptures.

Revelation 20:5​


“But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection.”

Those who did not experience the first resurrection do not live until the thousand years are finished~So, the scriptures said...This is the first resurrection.” Which goes back back to this verse:

Revelation 20:4​


“And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.”

Which we will come back and consider in depth.

But, first Revelation 20:3.....RB
3 R'S forgive my writing and lack of clear thoughts~Sherry and I both have been down with covid for a week and half, everytime I think I'm getting better, I go right back feeling very weak~it's hard to organize one's thoughts in a effective way, the way I like to do so, as you know me as well anyone here. You probably reading my posts and wonderling what's wrong with RB.
 
what would make anyone think that the 1000 years must be a literal number of years
When you translate the bible you always start out with a literal interpretation until you can't.

Pretty basic and pretty simple. Do you need an example? OK, Jesus is called a lamb....does that mean Jesus weighs 100 lbs has 4 legs is covered with wool and walks around saying bahhhhhh?

Did you know in the beginning of Rev 20 the 1,000 years is mentioned 6 times? 6 times!
John has 6 times to show that the 1,000 years is literal time rather than allegoric for a "long" time. Six times...

Now, would you like to go deeper and see how Barnabas, you know the guy that hung out with Paul and was mentioned in the bible understood it to be literal. That Barnabas....Would you?
You and I might not agree with what Barnabas said..but he presents the 1,000 years as literal. Go read Barnabas 15:3-5 . There he tells us for each day of creation 1,000 years is alotted for mans history. Here's a bit of it...

15:3 He speaketh, too, of the sabbath in the
beginning of the creation: And God made in six days
the works of his hands, and finished them on the
seventh day, and rested in it and sanctified it.
15:4 Consider, my children, what signify the words,
He finished them in six days. They mean this: that in
six thousand years the Lord will make an end of all
things, for a day is with him as a thousand years. And
he himself beareth witness unto me, saying: Behold
this day a day shall be as a thousand years.
Therefore, my children, in six days, that is in six
thousand years, shall all things be brought to an end.
15:5 And the words, He rested on the seventh day,

You see Red Baker....there are SEVERAL reasons to translate the 1,000 years as a literal 1,000 years.

Now you have yet an answer to...So why would we pick the 1000 years out of all these symbolic terms and say it must be taken literally or else we are in gross error?
 
Make a list of what actually happens on the Day of the Lord’s return. Forget about any presuppositions and just make a list.
Make a list?

Woke up,
fell out of bed
Dragged a comb across my head
Found my way downstairs
and drank a cup
And looking up, I noticed I was late
Found my coat and grabbed my hat
Made the bus in seconds flat
Found my way upstairs and had a smoke
And somebody spoke and I went into a dream

Something like the above? What are you looking for?
 
When you translate the bible you always start out with a literal interpretation until you can't.

Pretty basic and pretty simple. Do you need an example? OK, Jesus is called a lamb....does that mean Jesus weighs 100 lbs has 4 legs is covered with wool and walks around saying bahhhhhh?

Did you know in the beginning of Rev 20 the 1,000 years is mentioned 6 times? 6 times!
John has 6 times to show that the 1,000 years is literal time rather than allegoric for a "long" time. Six times...

Now, would you like to go deeper and see how Barnabas, you know the guy that hung out with Paul and was mentioned in the bible understood it to be literal. That Barnabas....Would you?
You and I might not agree with what Barnabas said..but he presents the 1,000 years as literal. Go read Barnabas 15:3-5 . There he tells us for each day of creation 1,000 years is alotted for mans history. Here's a bit of it...

15:3 He speaketh, too, of the sabbath in the
beginning of the creation: And God made in six days
the works of his hands, and finished them on the
seventh day, and rested in it and sanctified it.
15:4 Consider, my children, what signify the words,
He finished them in six days. They mean this: that in
six thousand years the Lord will make an end of all
things, for a day is with him as a thousand years. And
he himself beareth witness unto me, saying: Behold
this day a day shall be as a thousand years.
Therefore, my children, in six days, that is in six
thousand years, shall all things be brought to an end.
15:5 And the words, He rested on the seventh day,

You see Red Baker....there are SEVERAL reasons to translate the 1,000 years as a literal 1,000 years.

Now you have yet an answer to...So why would we pick the 1000 years out of all these symbolic terms and say it must be taken literally or else we are in gross error?
This is not scripture, so to appeal to it is a mistake.
 
This is not scripture, so to appeal to it is a mistake.
It doesn't matter if it's scripture or not. I was simply pointing out how Barnabas understood it to be literal.
Considering the earth is about 6,000 years old....when you do the math it's almost time for the 1,000 year reign according to Barnabas....did I mention Barnabas understood it to be literal?
 
I know you believe that Satan was bound back during the days of Solomon, or,thereabouts~and totally destroyed along with all evil spirits at 70 A.D., leaving this whole NT period free of evil spirits. Borderline of Saduceesism. Think about it~Satan being bound at this world's greatest act of wickedness, crucifying the Lord of Glory.
Thank you for remembering my stance on this point, Red. But it is not "borderline Sadduceeism", as you call it. The Sadducees did not believe in either angel or spirit or a resurrection of the body (Acts 23:8), and since I agree that the righteous angels do still exist, and that humanity has a spirit which returns to God who gave it at death, and that there are 3 separate bodily resurrection events, my position does not align with the Sadducee doctrine at all. This is a false comparison you are making.

At Christ's resurrection-day ascension, Satan became a "cornered rat", so to speak, by being cast out of heaven down to earth to wreak havoc for that "short time" among humankind with his deception (Rev. 12:12). That "short time" of Satan's activity on earth after Christ's resurrection-day ascension in AD 33 did not extend into the future for 2,000 years and more, otherwise John would not have called it "short". Satan's activity on earth ended "shortly" after AD 33. Even a child can get that point.

That "short time" period in Rev. 12:12 of Satan's frenzied activity on earth which had begun in AD 33 is the very same period as the "little season" of Satan's activity following the expiration of the millennium (Rev. 20:3 & 7). That means the Revelation 20 millennium was "finished" in AD 33. This is not rocket science. You do not need to devote page after page of commentary to understand the past millennium. John's first century audience of believing Christians understood it.

And you continue to put the cart before the horse in your interpretation of Matthew 12:29. The "strong man" is bound "FIRST", and THEN AFTERWARD the spoiling of his goods begins.

Christ was THEN in Matthew 12 spoiling Satan's "goods" by casting out devils. That proves that the binding of Satan as the "strong man" had ALREADY BEEN DONE BEFORE Christ was casting out devils.

The way you are interpreting this Matthew 12:29 verse is the same as if you were eating your dinner before you cooked it.

3R'S forgive my writing and lack of clear thoughts~Sherry and I both have been down with covid for a week and half, everytime I think I'm getting better, I go right back feeling very weak~it's hard to organize one's thoughts in a effective way, the way I like to do so, as you know me as well anyone here. You probably reading my posts and wonderling what's wrong with RB.
So sorry to hear that you are both battling this...I wouldn't wish a debilitating health issue like this on my worst enemy, let alone my old friends. God heals all our diseases, and I pray He does this for you both as quickly as possible.
 
It doesn't matter if it's scripture or not. I was simply pointing out how Barnabas understood it to be literal.
Considering the earth is about 6,000 years old....when you do the math it's almost time for the 1,000 year reign according to Barnabas....did I mention Barnabas understood it to be literal?
How do you know the earth is only 6,000 years old? :unsure:
 
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