Understanding the Prophecy of 70 Weeks

[eclipseEventSigns]

I looked at it again, and the numbering system of Julian days is not as I knew it. The Julian day starts at noon. If it isn't noon, then the day is a decimal day. That throws off my calculations, and the final results I had, which match yours. I made changes to those bring it in line with the Gregorian and based my arguments off of. Now I find that the original calculations are off when trying to line up a day that starts at noon, with a day that starts at midnight. The day (Monday, Tuesday, etc still changes at midnight, but the day count doesn't change until noon).

That's a great start. With that basic understanding confirmed, then the next steps can be done.
There are many ways to disprove the accuracy of Anderson's and Hoehner's calculations. One of the easiest and one that doesn't even require calculation is just their first assumption. That is that the decree was given on Nisan 1. That is the start of their day count and if that is not correct, then their entire system falls apart. And that's not even taking into account that no where in the Bible does it give a date for the decree - let alone that it was on Nisan 1.

According to historical records (which can be found in the "Babylonian Chronology"), the Babylonian religious year started on Nisan 1. That was one of their most important religious festivals - a spring festival. Their rule of when Nisan 1 started was at the first new moon AFTER the spring equinox. That means, every new year MUST start after March 21 (Julian calendar date would be offset by a few days). In Anderson's and Hoehner's system, they have Nisan 1 starting very early in March or even at the end of February. Those dates are not possible to be historically accurate. Nisan 1 always started AFTER the spring equinox.

So just this fact alone make their system unworkable. It's a very hard thing to accept for many people because many pastors and teachers have espoused their system as the only correct interpretation of the 70 Weeks. But hardly anyone researches it fully to verify it.

 

[TMSO]

But the last 2 verses of Dan 9 describe the destruction at the end of the generation very well. This has always made me think the last week or half week was that generation.

You have to consider the whole prophecy. 70 weeks. Time set in stone. (Again, this was a decree) 70 weeks are DECREED. What is a week. A set of 7. 7 what? In this case it is years, and we can be certain, because one can actually track the fulfillment of the first part of the prophecy and see that it equated to one week being 7 years. So after the 69th week the Messiah is cut off. So that means there are less then 7 years left, if the weeks are contiguous, when Jesus was crucified. However, in this same time span it says that the sanctuary and city will be destroyed. If Jesus was crucified in 32 or 33 AD, and Jerusalem and the temple was destroyed in 70 AD, where did all these extra years come from that God conveniently left out of His decree? A decree that can't be changed, by the way. After all, it was decree. Not even the king himself can change a decree once it was given. It will be fulfilled as decreed. How does that work? Well, we have a period of time that is simply stated as being "after the 69th week". It doesn't say, during the 70th week. We have a gap. Which is fine, because you have to read the decree again, and understand that it is fulfilled LITERALLY, being a decree and all. 70 weeks are decreed to you and your people for something to happen. We can look around and see that those things that are to happen have not happened yet. I don't see everlasting righteousness in Israel right now, do you?

Now consider a term that you might be quite familiar with.. football time. If I say that there is 5 minutes left to the time decreed for the football game, then you know that there is at least 15-20 minutes left to the game. How? There are 5 minutes of play time devoted to the game actually being played. However, there are breaks, commercial, referee called, etc. That time is not considered game time. Why? The focus isn't on the game. So, once Israel rejected the Messiah, and the Messiah was cut off, the focus was no longer on the Jews, but shifted to the Gentiles. We are in the "times of the Gentiles" that came about simply because the Jews rejected the gospel, according to Paul in Romans 11.

"11 I say then, they did not stumble so as to fall, did they? [g]Far from it! But by their wrongdoing salvation has come to the Gentiles, to make them jealous. 12 Now if their wrongdoing proves to be riches for the world, and their failure, riches for the Gentiles, how much more will their [h]fulfillment be!"

So the final end does not come around until the times of the Gentiles has been fulfilled. The focus doesn't go back to Israel until that time. That will be the 70th week.

"25 For I do not want you, brothers and sisters, to be uninformed of this mystery—so that you will not be wise in your own estimation—that a partial hardening has happened to Israel until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in; 26 and so all Israel will be saved;"

Notice how it says Israel has been partially hardened until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in, and then it is that all Israel will be saved. The focus goes back to Israel after the fulness of the Gentiles has come in. After Jesus has gathered in the sheep from another fold. The God will complete His judgement on the creation/world, and will complete His decree for Israel. Hence the focus on Israel for so much of Revelation, yet still speaking of the world as a whole throughout. The consummation of all, to include the 70 weeks decreed by God to Daniel.

 

[EarlyActs]

His focus never left the real Israel. A completely sensible reading is that the true Israel keeps collecting branches or fruit to the end of the age but without some kind of engagement with the race-nation , which is denied by the olive tree image(‘you stand by faith’—not by race-nation. Research ‘in this (partially hardened) way.’ Much different from one race-nation, then all the others, then back. The real Israel always was by faith, Heb 11, Rom 2B.

Hardly any prophecy is literal. It usually follows what God is doing in Christ.

1st century Israel was such a boiling point that it could have been wholesale revolt in 6 AD, Judas the Galilean. Or with Barrabbas attempt, also off the schedule.

Peter gave that generation the chance to become missionaries at the risk of ‘humiliating estrangement’ 3:23.

The decree is that destruction, not the time line. As additional proof of that notice the break in the timeline at 7 weeks. That is when it should have happened; a jubilee reset. God then added 62 further weeks. He had already extended a painful deadline.

My book is THE COVENANT REVOLT at Amazon.

 

[eclipseEventSigns]

You have to consider the whole prophecy. 70 weeks. Time set in stone. (Again, this was a decree) 70 weeks are DECREED. What is a week. A set of 7. 7 what? In this case it is years, and we can be certain, because one can actually track the fulfillment of the first part of the prophecy and see that it equated to one week being 7 years. So after the 69th week the Messiah is cut off. So that means there are less then 7 years left, if the weeks are contiguous, when Jesus was crucified. However, in this same time span it says that the sanctuary and city will be destroyed. If Jesus was crucified in 32 or 33 AD, and Jerusalem and the temple was destroyed in 70 AD, where did all these extra years come from that God conveniently left out of His decree? A decree that can't be changed, by the way. After all, it was decree. Not even the king himself can change a decree once it was given. It will be fulfilled as decreed. How does that work? Well, we have a period of time that is simply stated as being "after the 69th week". It doesn't say, during the 70th week. We have a gap. Which is fine, because you have to read the decree again, and understand that it is fulfilled LITERALLY, being a decree and all. 70 weeks are decreed to you and your people for something to happen. We can look around and see that those things that are to happen have not happened yet. I don't see everlasting righteousness in Israel right now, do you?

Now consider a term that you might be quite familiar with.. football time. If I say that there is 5 minutes left to the time decreed for the football game, then you know that there is at least 15-20 minutes left to the game. How? There are 5 minutes of play time devoted to the game actually being played. However, there are breaks, commercial, referee called, etc. That time is not considered game time. Why? The focus isn't on the game. So, once Israel rejected the Messiah, and the Messiah was cut off, the focus was no longer on the Jews, but shifted to the Gentiles. We are in the "times of the Gentiles" that came about simply because the Jews rejected the gospel, according to Paul in Romans 11.

"11 I say then, they did not stumble so as to fall, did they? [g]Far from it! But by their wrongdoing salvation has come to the Gentiles, to make them jealous. 12 Now if their wrongdoing proves to be riches for the world, and their failure, riches for the Gentiles, how much more will their [h]fulfillment be!"

So the final end does not come around until the times of the Gentiles has been fulfilled. The focus doesn't go back to Israel until that time. That will be the 70th week.

"25 For I do not want you, brothers and sisters, to be uninformed of this mystery—so that you will not be wise in your own estimation—that a partial hardening has happened to Israel until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in; 26 and so all Israel will be saved;"

Notice how it says Israel has been partially hardened until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in, and then it is that all Israel will be saved. The focus goes back to Israel after the fulness of the Gentiles has come in. After Jesus has gathered in the sheep from another fold. The God will complete His judgement on the creation/world, and will complete His decree for Israel. Hence the focus on Israel for so much of Revelation, yet still speaking of the world as a whole throughout. The consummation of all, to include the 70 weeks decreed by God to Daniel.

The big problem is that the word "decree" as translated in English does not actually mean "decree" the way it is understood. Daniel never used that Hebrew word for an earthly king's decree. Never. Not once. It is not from an earthly king. And Ezra 6:14 proves this. That is the entire point behind the Ezra 6:14 Challenge.

 

[TMSO]

The big problem is that the word "decree" as translated in English does not actually mean "decree" the way it is understood. Daniel never used that Hebrew word for an earthly king's decree. Never. Not once. It is not from an earthly king. And Ezra 6:14 proves this. That is the entire point behind the Ezra 6:14 Challenge.

It is translated as decree because the word in Hebrew is DETERMINED. That is, it is going to happen as stated.

Niph`al Perfect שָֽׁבֻעִים שִׁבְעִים נֶחְתַּךְ עַלעַֿמְּךָ Daniel 9:24 seventy weeks are determined upon thy people

The meaning is just as clear if you use decree. It is determined. It will happen. (Unless you don't believe God is capable of carrying out what He has determined, as He has determined it. The reason why the word decree can be used is that a decree is also set in stone. It is determined. It will happen as stated, or the decree is broken. And it is determined upon thy people. Not upon anyone else.

 

[eclipseEventSigns]

It is translated as decree because the word in Hebrew is DETERMINED. That is, it is going to happen as stated.

Niph`al Perfect שָֽׁבֻעִים שִׁבְעִים נֶחְתַּךְ עַלעַֿמְּךָ Daniel 9:24 seventy weeks are determined upon thy people

The meaning is just as clear if you use decree. It is determined. It will happen. (Unless you don't believe God is capable of carrying out what He has determined, as He has determined it. The reason why the word decree can be used is that a decree is also set in stone. It is determined. It will happen as stated, or the decree is broken. And it is determined upon thy people. Not upon anyone else.

Wrong! That word is NOT used in place of what is translated "decree". False. False. False.

 

[TMSO]

Wrong! That word is NOT used in place of what is translated "decree". False. False. False.

I take it you didn't know that determine is a synonym for decree when decree is used as a verb? Why else are their versions of the Bible that use decree? Nuance. You can also find that decree is a synonym for determine in a thesaurus. Why?
Determine
To officially decide something, especially based on facts or evidence, or to establish something with authority

Decree
An official order or decision made by a government or someone in power, or a court of law

It is not wrong to see it as determine or decree. There is nuance. One is to decide something for oneself, or, especially with God, to establish something with authority. A decree is basically the determination in writing and put forth by "someone in power". Again, they are synonyms. Given the connotation of the passage, either translation is fine. The message is not lost by choosing one word or the other. Either fits in fine with the context.

 

[eclipseEventSigns]

I take it you didn't know that determine is a synonym for decree when decree is used as a verb? Why else are their versions of the Bible that use decree? Nuance. You can also find that decree is a synonym for determine in a thesaurus. Why?
Determine
To officially decide something, especially based on facts or evidence, or to establish something with authority

Decree
An official order or decision made by a government or someone in power, or a court of law

It is not wrong to see it as determine or decree. There is nuance. One is to decide something for oneself, or, especially with God, to establish something with authority. A decree is basically the determination in writing and put forth by "someone in power". Again, they are synonyms. Given the connotation of the passage, either translation is fine. The message is not lost by choosing one word or the other. Either fits in fine with the context.

Again you are spouting falsehoods. The word is NOT the same in Hebrew. And that is what matters. Not English translations. You have no idea of how to properly translate the original language text.

 

[TMSO]

Again you are spouting falsehoods. The word is NOT the same in Hebrew. And that is what matters. Not English translations. You have no idea of how to properly translate the original language text.

You may want to stop the slander and bearing of false witness. Perhaps if you used a concordance. Perhaps if you had studied linguistics in a professional setting? Perhaps if you had training as a real time translator/interpreter? There are only so many times I can face palm.

From the concordance:
Strong's Exhaustive Concordance
determine
A primitive root; properly, to cut off, i.e. (figuratively) to decree -- determine.

 

[eclipseEventSigns]

You may want to stop the slander and bearing of false witness. Perhaps if you used a concordance. Perhaps if you had studied linguistics in a professional setting? Perhaps if you had training as a real time translator/interpreter? There are only so many times I can face palm.

From the concordance:
Strong's Exhaustive Concordance
determine
A primitive root; properly, to cut off, i.e. (figuratively) to decree -- determine.

You should probably stop your slander. READ the text. Not the same word. Can't state it any more clearly. You are WRONG and stating falsehoods.

 

[TMSO]

You should probably stop your slander. READ the text. Not the same word. Can't state it any more clearly. You are WRONG and stating falsehoods.

I did read the text. It is the definition of the word you used in the concordance, which means properly, to cut off, divide. In this case it is a division of time. 70 weeks. However, figuratively it means to decree -- determine. Hence you have some biblical translations that use decree, and others that use determine. It depends on the translator and how they see/feel the nuance of the translation. If God determined it and kept it to Himself, determine. If it was put out as an official decision/determination, then decree is a viable choice. It is not that difficult. Consider the word love in English. How do we decide how to translate the english word love into koine greek? There are several words to choose from in koine greek, and none of them simply mean love. Yet in english, we are simply saying love. How do you choose which of the several words to use? And how do we handle someone else like you who will say wrong, you can only directly translate the word love. You can't consider nuance or context.

 

[eclipseEventSigns]

I did read the text. It is the definition of the word you used in the concordance, which means properly, to cut off, divide. In this case it is a division of time. 70 weeks. However, figuratively it means to decree -- determine. Hence you have some biblical translations that use decree, and others that use determine. It depends on the translator and how they see/feel the nuance of the translation. If God determined it and kept it to Himself, determine. If it was put out as an official decision/determination, then decree is a viable choice. It is not that difficult. Consider the word love in English. How do we decide how to translate the english word love into koine greek? There are several words to choose from in koine greek, and none of them simply mean love. Yet in english, we are simply saying love. How do you choose which of the several words to use? And how do we handle someone else like you who will say wrong, you can only directly translate the word love. You can't consider nuance or context.

It's not the same word. Get it through your head. It does NOT matter what English (or any other language) translates it as. The important thing is what the Hebrew words are. I can't believe this stupid argument. The words aren't the same. Any 4 year old could tell the difference.

 

[TMSO]

It's not the same word. Get it through your head. It does NOT matter what English (or any other language) translates it as. The important thing is what the Hebrew words are. I can't believe this stupid argument. The words aren't the same. Any 4 year old could tell the difference.

Of course not. The Hebrew is not the same as English. It doesn't even use the same letters because the alphabet is different. (I can't believe I have to drag this down that low...) Translations are not the way to go, but interpretation is. You can be a translater if all you do is open the dictionary for every word said and translate it that way. No one will be able to understand you. However, an interpreter understands how the words go together, the context, and the nuance, and gives the proper translation/interpretation so that one can understand. Consider a koine greek person asking you what this word is in English, and you tell them. Then they ask you about a different word, and you give the same word in English, and they do it several times, and you give the same word back in English each time. The words are the same in English. The words are different in Greek, but they translate to the same thing in English.

Perhaps you should go through the Diplomatic Language Service and learn a foreign language that way. You will learn very quickly exactly how it is, and why I keep face palming. I approached language the way you are saying above, and was told that if I don't stop I would fail. And, from the teachers, I had the best vocabulary in the class...

 

[eclipseEventSigns]

Of course not. The Hebrew is not the same as English. It doesn't even use the same letters because the alphabet is different. (I can't believe I have to drag this down that low...) Translations are not the way to go, but interpretation is. You can be a translater if all you do is open the dictionary for every word said and translate it that way. No one will be able to understand you. However, an interpreter understands how the words go together, the context, and the nuance, and gives the proper translation/interpretation so that one can understand. Consider a koine greek person asking you what this word is in English, and you tell them. Then they ask you about a different word, and you give the same word in English, and they do it several times, and you give the same word back in English each time. The words are the same in English. The words are different in Greek, but they translate to the same thing in English.

Perhaps you should go through the Diplomatic Language Service and learn a foreign language that way. You will learn very quickly exactly how it is, and why I keep face palming. I approached language the way you are saying above, and was told that if I don't stop I would fail. And, from the teachers, I had the best vocabulary in the class...

Just stop already. You are a laughing stock.

 

[TMSO]

Just stop already. You are a laughing stock.

I'm wondering if I should post this to the linguist group I am a part of so I can make their day? Perhaps you can explain how one is to properly translate an idiom, if it is the words in the original language that matter? (Short answer... YOU CAN'T) To prove it, please tell me what this literal translation of this Russian phrase is, and what the Russian person is saying. They speak of "one who sits on porcupine with bare a--." The proper translation of this is only one word in english. But wait, you said that can't be. It must mean what the original language says. So there must be someone who is actually doing this, right?

 

[eclipseEventSigns]

I'm wondering if I should post this to the linguist group I am a part of so I can make their day? Perhaps you can explain how one is to properly translate an idiom, if it is the words in the original language that matter? (Short answer... YOU CAN'T) To prove it, please tell me what this literal translation of this Russian phrase is, and what the Russian person is saying. They speak of "one who sits on porcupine with bare a--." The proper translation of this is only one word in english. But wait, you said that can't be. It must mean what the original language says. So there must be someone who is actually doing this, right?

Ho hum. You can't even admit defeat gracefully. Keep digging yourself deeper. It's funny.

 

[TMSO]

Ho hum. You can't even admit defeat gracefully. Keep digging yourself deeper. It's funny.

I looked it up again, and the English does matter. Why? Because it is translated as determined and decreed. (notice it is not a noun, but a verb.) I just pointed out that a decree to Daniel is not something that can be taken back. I also said that in translating, that nuance is important. Something you denied. It doesn't matter who is doing it, decreed is also a proper understanding. The NASB, which uses decreed, is a more literal translation. The only reason I can think that they translated it as decreed, was God was telling Daniel that his determiniation was being officially put out, which is basically the definition of decreed. A determination is made and kept to self. Once it is officially put out, the determination is decreed. Hence why they are synonyms. Like with the word love in english and the several words in Greek that each translate to love, though that doesn't even begin to actually give the interpretation, the reason why the word is used here is because of the situation. God has divided/cut off 70 weeks for Daniel's people and their holy city. (The actual meaning of the Hebrew word.) Yet, due to nuance, determined fits in fine, as does decreed. God didn't write it down, so the word used for decree from kings doesn't fit here. The understanding is still the same. God decreed, which means that He cannot/will not change it. What did Paul say about the calling of the nation of Israel as God's chosen people? The calling is irrevocable.

 

[eclipseEventSigns]

I looked it up again, and the English does matter. Why? Because it is translated as determined and decreed. (notice it is not a noun, but a verb.) I just pointed out that a decree to Daniel is not something that can be taken back. I also said that in translating, that nuance is important. Something you denied. It doesn't matter who is doing it, decreed is also a proper understanding. The NASB, which uses decreed, is a more literal translation. The only reason I can think that they translated it as decreed, was God was telling Daniel that his determiniation was being officially put out, which is basically the definition of decreed. A determination is made and kept to self. Once it is officially put out, the determination is decreed. Hence why they are synonyms. Like with the word love in english and the several words in Greek that each translate to love, though that doesn't even begin to actually give the interpretation, the reason why the word is used here is because of the situation. God has divided/cut off 70 weeks for Daniel's people and their holy city. (The actual meaning of the Hebrew word.) Yet, due to nuance, determined fits in fine, as does decreed. God didn't write it down, so the word used for decree from kings doesn't fit here. The understanding is still the same. God decreed, which means that He cannot/will not change it. What did Paul say about the calling of the nation of Israel as God's chosen people? The calling is irrevocable.

As I've said many multiple times before and is all through my material in my book and videos, what you consider as "decree" is NOT the meaning of the original Hebrew word. It just is not. I can't state it any clearer. Your view (and most others) do not meet the Ezra 6:14 Challenge. And this is EXACTLY THE POINT. The 70 weeks do not start with a decree of an earthly king. Daniel never uses the word to describe an earthly king's decree. It is by the utterance of the WORD of God as Jeremiah specifically states the date of - not just once - but twice. Just so that it is clear to anyone with an open mind who understands what this entire subject is actually all about. It's what Gabriel specifically references in the prophecy of the 70 Weeks.

 

[TMSO]

As I've said many multiple times before and is all through my material in my book and videos, what you consider as "decree" is NOT the meaning of the original Hebrew word. It just is not. I can't state it any clearer. Your view (and most others) do not meet the Ezra 6:14 Challenge. And this is EXACTLY THE POINT. The 70 weeks do not start with a decree of an earthly king. Daniel never uses the word to describe an earthly king's decree. It is by the utterance of the WORD of God as Jeremiah specifically states the date of - not just once - but twice. Just so that it is clear to anyone with an open mind who understands what this entire subject is actually all about. It's what Gabriel specifically references in the prophecy of the 70 Weeks.

Then it can't be determined, because determined and decree are SYNONYMS. Read it again. The definition isn't determined, however, the context pushes the idea of determined/decreed, so that is how it is translated. It is divide/cut off. God has divided/cut off 70 weeks for Israel. Can you see how this lends the idea of determined/decreed? The context. The 70 weeks started with the decree to rebuild Israel.
"So you are to know and understand that from the issuing of a [y]decree to restore and rebuild Jerusalem, until [z]Messiah the Prince, there will be seven weeks and sixty-two weeks;" If you can't understand why it is tranlsated as the issuing of a decree, get a dictionary and look up what decree means.

Let's look at Ezra 6:14

And they finished	וְשַׁכְלִ֗לוּ (ve·shach·li·lu)	3635: to complete	(Aramaic) corresponding to kalal
building	וּבְנֹ֣ו (u·ve·nov)	1124: to build	(Aramaic) corresponding to banah
according	מִן־ (min-)	4481: from, out of, by, by reason of, at, more than	(Aramaic) corresponding to min
to the command	וּמִטְּעֵם֙ (u·mit·te·'em)	2942: taste, judgment, command	(Aramaic) from teem
of the God	אֱלָ֣הּ (e·lah)	426: God, god	(Aramaic) corresponding to eloah
of Israel	יִשְׂרָאֵ֔ל (yis·ra·'el,)	3479: desc. of Jacob	(Aramaic) corresponding to Yisrael
and the decree		2942: taste, judgment, command	(Aramaic) from teem
of Cyrus,	כֹּ֣ורֶשׁ (ko·v·resh)	3567: a Pers. king	(Aramaic) corresponding to Koresh
Darius,	וְדָרְיָ֔וֶשׁ (ve·da·re·ya·vesh,)	1868: two Pers. kings	(Aramaic) corresponding to Dareyavesh
and Artaxerxes	וְאַרְתַּחְשַׁ֖שְׂתְּא (ve·'ar·tach·shas·te)	783b: a son and successor of Xerxes, king of Persia	(Aramaic) of foreign origin

Same word is used of God and kings, yet they are translated differently each time. I thought that the original Hebrew mattered? It looks like the preference of the translator, something which you said doesn't matter. What it looks like is that "and the decree" doesn't actually exist, but was put in by the translator.

 

[eclipseEventSigns]

Then it can't be determined, because determined and decree are SYNONYMS. Read it again. The definition isn't determined, however, the context pushes the idea of determined/decreed, so that is how it is translated. It is divide/cut off. God has divided/cut off 70 weeks for Israel. Can you see how this lends the idea of determined/decreed? The context. The 70 weeks started with the decree to rebuild Israel.
"So you are to know and understand that from the issuing of a [y]decree to restore and rebuild Jerusalem, until [z]Messiah the Prince, there will be seven weeks and sixty-two weeks;" If you can't understand why it is tranlsated as the issuing of a decree, get a dictionary and look up what decree means.

Let's look at Ezra 6:14

And they finished	וְשַׁכְלִ֗לוּ (ve·shach·li·lu)	3635: to complete	(Aramaic) corresponding to kalal
building	וּבְנֹ֣ו (u·ve·nov)	1124: to build	(Aramaic) corresponding to banah
according	מִן־ (min-)	4481: from, out of, by, by reason of, at, more than	(Aramaic) corresponding to min
to the command	וּמִטְּעֵם֙ (u·mit·te·'em)	2942: taste, judgment, command	(Aramaic) from teem
of the God	אֱלָ֣הּ (e·lah)	426: God, god	(Aramaic) corresponding to eloah
of Israel	יִשְׂרָאֵ֔ל (yis·ra·'el,)	3479: desc. of Jacob	(Aramaic) corresponding to Yisrael
and the decree		2942: taste, judgment, command	(Aramaic) from teem
of Cyrus,	כֹּ֣ורֶשׁ (ko·v·resh)	3567: a Pers. king	(Aramaic) corresponding to Koresh
Darius,	וְדָרְיָ֔וֶשׁ (ve·da·re·ya·vesh,)	1868: two Pers. kings	(Aramaic) corresponding to Dareyavesh
and Artaxerxes	וְאַרְתַּחְשַׁ֖שְׂתְּא (ve·'ar·tach·shas·te)	783b: a son and successor of Xerxes, king of Persia	(Aramaic) of foreign origin

Same word is used of God and kings, yet they are translated differently each time. I thought that the original Hebrew mattered? It looks like the preference of the translator, something which you said doesn't matter. What it looks like is that "and the decree" doesn't actually exist, but was put in by the translator.

You keep stating falsehoods. "decree" and "determined" are NOT synonyms. Totally and absolutely not true whatsoever.

Both passages contain the "secret" to how the 70 weeks start. They both state that it was the issuing of the "word" of God that was the beginning of the time period. There was no "decree" involved.

My videos and book go through all this proof in very much great detail. Much more than can be in a forum post.