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Understanding the Prophecy of 70 Weeks

You keep stating falsehoods. "decree" and "determined" are NOT synonyms. Totally and absolutely not true whatsoever.
I see what you did there. Decree (n) and determined (v) would not be synonyms, however decreed (v) and determined (v) would be synonyms. So would decree (v) and determine (v). So, no falsehoods at all. This is you saying you want a thesaurus for Christmas without directly asking for a thesaurus for Christmas. I think I noted that I had looked it up in a thesaurus, which was clear that they are synonyms. I also presented definitions that showed they are synonyms.
Both passages contain the "secret" to how the 70 weeks start. They both state that it was the issuing of the "word" of God that was the beginning of the time period. There was no "decree" involved.
Decree can be a noun, but it can also be a verb. It isn't that difficult to follow. I decree that that person is not allowed to... (a verb). I gave a decree that this person... (a noun). In the case of Daniel 9, it is a verb. Command, decree, determine, or if being literal, to cut off/divide.
My videos and book go through all this proof in very much great detail. Much more than can be in a forum post.
You should be able to present a valid compelling argument at this level, which would tell me it may be worth spending my precious, little time with books and videos. However, this is not at all compelling. Especially when you start up with a blatant falsehood.
 
I see what you did there. Decree (n) and determined (v) would not be synonyms, however decreed (v) and determined (v) would be synonyms. So would decree (v) and determine (v). So, no falsehoods at all. This is you saying you want a thesaurus for Christmas without directly asking for a thesaurus for Christmas. I think I noted that I had looked it up in a thesaurus, which was clear that they are synonyms. I also presented definitions that showed they are synonyms.

Decree can be a noun, but it can also be a verb. It isn't that difficult to follow. I decree that that person is not allowed to... (a verb). I gave a decree that this person... (a noun). In the case of Daniel 9, it is a verb. Command, decree, determine, or if being literal, to cut off/divide.

You should be able to present a valid compelling argument at this level, which would tell me it may be worth spending my precious, little time with books and videos. However, this is not at all compelling. Especially when you start up with a blatant falsehood.
It's very telling that you (and most people on this forum) do not want to make the effort to investigate the proper way to interpret this (and many other) prophecy I've discovered. Why should I rewrite the hundreds of hours of research in a forum when I present it the way I want it presented in my videos and books. I don't care if you don't ever know the truth. It's your loss. But stop denigrated me for your lack of courage to challenge your preconceived assumptions.
 
It's very telling that you (and most people on this forum) do not want to make the effort to investigate the proper way to interpret this (and many other) prophecy I've discovered. Why should I rewrite the hundreds of hours of research in a forum when I present it the way I want it presented in my videos and books. I don't care if you don't ever know the truth. It's your loss. But stop denigrated me for your lack of courage to challenge your preconceived assumptions.
It should have been n for noun, and v for verb. Crazy forum. The offer for a thesaurus is still good... Decreed and determined are synonymous. BTW, when it says decree in the Bible, it isn't decree. It is writing or other such words, which basically means determination written on paper. Hence the determination becomes a decree.
 
It's very telling that you (and most people on this forum) do not want to make the effort to investigate the proper way to interpret this (and many other) prophecy I've discovered. Why should I rewrite the hundreds of hours of research in a forum when I present it the way I want it presented in my videos and books. I don't care if you don't ever know the truth. It's your loss. But stop denigrated me for your lack of courage to challenge your preconceived assumptions.
As for a compelling argument, all we are talking about is language here. You state that the language, which a linguist can explain to you (and has been trying) and explain why, for instance, decreed (a verb) and determined (a verb) are not synonymous. (I would use a thesaurus...) Also, you haven't explained the issue with Ezra, where the same words are translated in two different ways, when it only shows up once in the verse.
 
As for a compelling argument, all we are talking about is language here. You state that the language, which a linguist can explain to you (and has been trying) and explain why, for instance, decreed (a verb) and determined (a verb) are not synonymous. (I would use a thesaurus...) Also, you haven't explained the issue with Ezra, where the same words are translated in two different ways, when it only shows up once in the verse.
As I said, look at my presentations. Not going to lay out the entire evidence and sources in a forum post. If you don't have the time or interest, then I don't have the time or interest in engaging with you.
 
Then it can't be determined, because determined and decree are SYNONYMS. Read it again. The definition isn't determined, however, the context pushes the idea of determined/decreed, so that is how it is translated. It is divide/cut off. God has divided/cut off 70 weeks for Israel. Can you see how this lends the idea of determined/decreed? The context. The 70 weeks started with the decree to rebuild Israel.
"So you are to know and understand that from the issuing of a [y]decree to restore and rebuild Jerusalem, until [z]Messiah the Prince, there will be seven weeks and sixty-two weeks;" If you can't understand why it is tranlsated as the issuing of a decree, get a dictionary and look up what decree means.

Let's look at Ezra 6:14
And they finishedוְשַׁכְלִ֗לוּ
(ve·shach·li·lu)
3635: to complete(Aramaic) corresponding to kalal
buildingוּבְנֹ֣ו
(u·ve·nov)
1124: to build(Aramaic) corresponding to banah
accordingמִן־
(min-)
4481: from, out of, by, by reason of, at, more than(Aramaic) corresponding to min
to the commandוּמִטְּעֵם֙
(u·mit·te·'em)
2942: taste, judgment, command(Aramaic) from teem
of the Godאֱלָ֣הּ
(e·lah)
426: God, god(Aramaic) corresponding to eloah
of Israelיִשְׂרָאֵ֔ל
(yis·ra·'el,)
3479: desc. of Jacob(Aramaic) corresponding to Yisrael
and the decree2942: taste, judgment, command(Aramaic) from teem
of Cyrus,כֹּ֣ורֶשׁ
(ko·v·resh)
3567: a Pers. king(Aramaic) corresponding to Koresh
Darius,וְדָרְיָ֔וֶשׁ
(ve·da·re·ya·vesh,)
1868: two Pers. kings(Aramaic) corresponding to Dareyavesh
and Artaxerxesוְאַרְתַּחְשַׁ֖שְׂתְּא
(ve·'ar·tach·shas·te)
783b: a son and successor of Xerxes, king of Persia(Aramaic) of foreign origin

Same word is used of God and kings, yet they are translated differently each time. I thought that the original Hebrew mattered? It looks like the preference of the translator, something which you said doesn't matter. What it looks like is that "and the decree" doesn't actually exist, but was put in by the translator.
Its like the Hebrew word for "day" is yom (יום) which can have multiple meanings, including a 24-hour period of time or period of daylight between dawn and dusk etc. You have to add context to see how it is being used..
 
Its like the Hebrew word for "day" is yom (יום) which can have multiple meanings, including a 24-hour period of time or period of daylight between dawn and dusk etc. You have to add context to see how it is being used..
No. This is incorrect. I tried to already correct that faulty view. There was no "DECREE". That is an incorrect translation of the Hebrew word. There was a WORD that went out. This phrase is NEVER used of an action of an earthly king or ruler when Daniel uses that particular word. The assumption of trying to find when a king made a "decree" is entirely false.
 
We read Daniel 9 starting in verse 22...
22 And he informed me, and talked with me, and said, O Daniel, I am now come forth to give thee skill and understanding.
23 At the beginning of thy supplications the commandment came forth, and I am come to shew thee; for thou art greatly beloved: therefore understand the matter, and consider the vision.
24 Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people and upon thy holy city, to finish the transgression, and to make an end of sins, and to make reconciliation for iniquity, and to bring in everlasting righteousness, and to seal up the vision and prophecy, and to anoint the most Holy.
25 Know therefore and understand, that from the going forth of the commandment to restore and to build Jerusalem unto the Messiah the Prince shall be seven weeks, and threescore and two weeks: the street shall be built again, and the wall, even in troublous times.
26 And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined.
27 And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.

The Prophecy of Seventy Weeks in Daniel chapter 9, is the 490 years of uninterrupted period starting from "the time the word goes out to rebuild and restore Jerusalem," of Daniel 9:25 and ending 3½ years after Jesus' death. The starting point identified with a decree by Artaxerxes I in 458/7 BC to provide money to rebuild Jerusalem and its temple.

Now there where two earlier decrees by Cyrus and Darius’. So why don't these two decrees qualify to start the prophecy of Daniel 9:25? Well lets take a look at these two decrees. The first is the decree of Cyrus, given in his first year (537/536 B.C.) which is recorded in Ezra 1:1-4. An undated decree of Darius (520/519 B.C.) which is found in Ezra 6:1-12 merely reconfirms the decree of Cyrus. however, the first two decrees are about the temple, and its reconstruction, whereas the statement in Daniel 9:25 is concerned with the decree that resulted in the rebuilding of the city of Jerusalem.

The first two decrees can be omitted from consideration, because they deal only with the building of the temple, and not the rebuilding of the city and restoration, "that from the going forth of the commandment to restore and to build Jerusalem unto the Messiah the Prince shall be seven weeks, and threescore and two weeks: the street shall be built again, and the wall, even in troublous times." So we can see that the third decree of Artaxerxes is the one that started the prophecy of Daniel 9 and was implemented in September/October 457 B.C.

The appearance of "Messiah the Prince" at the end of the 69 weeks (483 years) is aligned with Jesus' baptism in 27 CE. The 'cutting off' of the "anointed one" is applied to the Jesus' execution 3½ years after the end of the 483 years, bringing "atonement for iniquity" and "everlasting righteousness". Jesus' death is said to 'confirm' the "covenant" between God and mankind by in 31 CE "in the midst of" the last seven years. The end of the 70th week is associated with 34 AD when the gospel was redirected from only the Jews to all peoples

Christian historicism, which is what unveils these verses from scripture, interprets prophecy as an overview of the history of the Christian church, asserting connections between historical events and statements in the Bible, and distinguishing between prophecies considered already fulfilled and those still to come. The Jews of biblical times, had taught this view in the many prophecies to be fulfilled, which were pointing to the Messiah such as those by the prophets Isaiah and Ezekiel. The early church and the precursors to the Reformation used it, Jerome in his 'Commentary on Daniel' went into the kingdoms that Daniel predicted, and we find it held by many of the Protestant Reformers and in their teachings.


It’s good til the last paragraph. It sounds like you mean to find things down through church history. I don’t accept that bc of the widespread expectation by the apostles that the world should end right after the destruction of Israel in 70. I notice you don’t mention that nor the timestamp about it formed by Lk 23:28.
 
It’s good til the last paragraph. It sounds like you mean to find things down through church history. I don’t accept that bc of the widespread expectation by the apostles that the world should end right after the destruction of Israel in 70. I notice you don’t mention that nor the timestamp about it formed by Lk 23:28.
Both comments are based on faulty translations which leads to a faulty and wrong understanding of the prophecy. One can NOT use the KJV translation to properly understand the 70 Weeks prophecy. Neither can one use any translation that inserts a particular bias into the text. ANY translation that capitalizes the words "Messiah" and "Prince" are wrong. This is inserting a translation bias into the original Hebrew text.
The Hebrew language has no capital letters. Neither does it have any punctuation. Only if you go back to original text will you ever have a hope of properly understanding the prophecy. THAT is one of major discoveries I've made that almost no one has recognized for centuries. And its the reason I've cracked the true interpretation finally in these end times.
 
No. This is incorrect. I tried to already correct that faulty view. There was no "DECREE". That is an incorrect translation of the Hebrew word. There was a WORD that went out. This phrase is NEVER used of an action of an earthly king or ruler when Daniel uses that particular word. The assumption of trying to find when a king made a "decree" is entirely false.
So you have it right but the Bible scholars are all wrong, hmm. Need to rethink that..
 
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