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Total Depravity. Was it a misnomer?

it (preposition): that one - used as subject or direct object or indirect object of a verb or object of a preposition usually in reference to a lifeless thing. ;)
funny guy ;)
 
You didn't ask for a definition of grace. But if you want one, essentially it is God's power to effect His will.
We can go around and round, but I did ask him to define how God's Grace effects the will. Go through our discussion. Anyway, is God's Grace effectual or not?

The sin nature is in the flesh. The flesh is anti-God. The soul is created neutral, neither good nor bad, right nor wrong.
Huh??? This is Semi-Pelagianism, you know that, right? God did create Adam & Eve upright and good, with a total Free-Will and ability to obey or disobey God. They fell into sin by their own free-will, and it's by this action to breach God's Covenant that sanctions were rendered upon them and all mankind. Sin affect every part of man, to his core, including his soul. There's no part of fallen man that is not affected by sin.​
If the soul was created depraved it would mean one, god is guilty of creating sin (which He is not) and two, the soul would never be free of it's anti-God stance just like the flesh.
As I pointed out above they were not created depraved; they were created upright and good, with a total free-will. But they sinned against God, were judged and sentenced and exiled into outter darkness. To suggest that any part of fallen man is not affected by sin, is lacking biblical knowledge. You need to revisit Scripture, and research it for yourselves.​

Salvation would require more than freeing the soul from the grasp of the flesh and a transformation of the soul, it would require creating a whole new soul ergo, you would no longer be you. If you no longer exist, what's to save?
To redeem a ungodly sinner who is under condemnation, death and punishment. The whole person must be saved, not just the flesh, right? This is the reason why Grace is needed prior to everything, right?
 
Huh??? This is Semi-Pelagianism, you know that, right? God did create Adam & Eve upright and good, with a total Free-Will and ability to obey or disobey God. They fell into sin by their own free-will, and it's by this action to breach God's Covenant that sanctions were rendered upon them and all mankind. Sin affect every part of man, to his core, including his soul. There's no part of fallen man that is not affected by sin.​
You know why you had me avoiding you? You jump to wrong conclusions, and do so dogmatically.

Pelagianism was not being stated. Nor, was semi Pelagianism. But you just go ahead and blow up the model being constructed without understanding it, and declare it was defective....

Too much book knowledge without enough sound doctrinal application ruins the dialogue.

That is why I decided to stop trying with you.
 
You didn't ask for a definition of grace. But if you want one, essentially it is God's power to effect His will.

The sin nature is in the flesh. The flesh is anti-God. The soul is created neutral, neither good nor bad, right nor wrong. If the soul was created depraved it would mean one, god is guilty of creating sin (which He is not) and two, the soul would never be free of it's anti-God stance just like the flesh. Salvation would require more than freeing the soul from the grasp of the flesh and a transformation of the soul, it would require creating a whole new soul ergo, you would no longer be you. If you no longer exist, what's to save?
Ask God demonstrates how He controls the flesh of the believer who walks in the Spirit? God sovereignly takes the flesh of an unbeliever to give the unbeliever a fair chance to make a good decision. That does guarantee a right decision will be made. What it does is guarantee that a bad decision will not be compelled to be made by the sin nature (flesh).

The sin nature by default is opposed to God and God's truth. The human soul is a SLAVE to the flesh for the unregenerate person.
Therefore, if God does nothing to aid that soul in making a choice about God? That soul will be doomed to never believe.
 
You know why you had me avoiding you? You jump to wrong conclusions, and do so dogmatically.

Pelagianism was not being stated. Nor, was semi Pelagianism. But you just go ahead and blow up the model being constructed without understanding it, and declare it was defective....

Too much book knowledge without enough sound doctrinal application ruins the dialogue.

That is why I decided to stop trying with you.
This conversation is between me and sawdust. I prefer not to engage with you. Thanks.
 
This conversation is between me and sawdust. I prefer not to engage with you. Thanks.
But it was about me in parts of your conversation.....
 
But it was about me in parts of your conversation.....
Okay, I will only engage if you can be cordial and civil, and we both answer each other's questions, fair enough?
 
We can go around and round, but I did ask him to define how God's Grace effects the will. Go through our discussion. Anyway, is God's Grace effectual or not?
This is what I saw you ask below in italics. You asked how does He silence and force. The answer is by grace. You did not ask to define how grace works and indeed, the very answer is in the question you now ask. The answer is by silencing and forcing the sin nature into submission so the will can be free of it's anti-God effects of the flesh. In this way the person is free (just as Adam was in the Garden pre-Fall) to respond to God of their own free will. This has all been stated from the very beginning of this thread.

You eluded to" God drawing sinners by silencing and forcing...". How so, I asked, and you reply with nothing

The only reason we could go round and round is because you never worded your question well or you don't comprehend what is being said in the first place. My money is on the latter. ;)

Huh??? This is Semi-Pelagianism, you know that, right? God did create Adam & Eve upright and good, with a total Free-Will and ability to obey or disobey God. They fell into sin by their own free-will, and it's by this action to breach God's Covenant that sanctions were rendered upon them and all mankind. Sin affect every part of man, to his core, including his soul. There's no part of fallen man that is not affected by sin.
Only God is good and righteous inherently. Adam and Eve had no goodness or righteousness of their own. Their goodness came from God's declaration of His creation and their righteousness came by faith in the Lord's word (as it has always been and always will be). When they broke fidelity with the word of God they lost their righteousness and God could no longer declare them good. I did not describe Semi-Pelagianism. That teaches a cross between having no sin nature at all and being utterly depraved body and soul (post-Fall). Only God can create souls or destroy them. If He created the soul inherently depraved (and please keep in mind we are speaking of creating humans post-Fall so don't hark back to how Adam and Eve were created) then He is guilty of creating sin. He cannot do that. I explained this in my post. God cannot create anything inherently good or evil, this is why I said the soul is neutral, for only God can create souls. Our flesh comes from our parents. We must learn good and evil. If there were no grace? Then the only thing we could learn is evil and our souls would become as corrupted as our flesh. But where sin abounds, grace abounds even more.

To redeem a ungodly sinner who is under condemnation, death and punishment. The whole person must be saved, not just the flesh, right? This is the reason why Grace is needed prior to everything, right?

The flesh is not saved. This was the point of what I said when explaining @GeneZ comments that you asked about. We will be given a new/different body not simply an upgrade to this one. In contrast, if are are given a new/different soul we would no longer be who we are. We would be someone else. Our souls are the essence of who we are. It holds the basis for consciousness (of self and others), intellect, emotion and will. It is one thing to be transformed in our thinking, it is quite another thing to become someone else. He is the Saviour of our souls, not our bodies.

And before you say anything, trying to take what I said where I did not go, (pre-emptive strike on my part) ... Yes, the bodies we are in now are the bodies that are raised from the dead but they will be clothed with another type of substance, one made from the stuff of heaven rather than the stuff of earth.
 
Ask God demonstrates how He controls the flesh of the believer who walks in the Spirit? God sovereignly takes the flesh of an unbeliever to give the unbeliever a fair chance to make a good decision. That does guarantee a right decision will be made. What it does is guarantee that a bad decision will not be compelled to be made by the sin nature (flesh).

The sin nature by default is opposed to God and God's truth. The human soul is a SLAVE to the flesh for the unregenerate person.
Therefore, if God does nothing to aid that soul in making a choice about God? That soul will be doomed to never believe.
I agree with what you said here but I think there might be a typo in the bit I bolded? Shouldn't that read "that does not guarantee..."?
 
Ugh. It is not the Cross that prevents men from coming to God. Nor did Christ die so men could get a pass to heaven. He died to remove the barrier that prevented the righteous God from having a relationship with unrighteous people without compromising His own Integrity (justice).

Look again at the verse you quoted. He suffered for sin that He might bring men to God. If you think our response to the Cross, even a negative one, somehow makes Christ's death ineffective, then you really don't know the power of the Cross.
No one said the cross prevents people from coming to God, you cant folllow a simple argument. The Cross brings to God them He died for.
 
I believe that he was requesting you define the phrase “Dead to God” so he could know EXACTLY what you meant by it (the phrase). Simply repeating the phrase does not define it.

If I say, “You are dead to me!” it means that I will no longer acknowledge anything about you. I have “washed my hands” [another idiom] of you. I will not listen to anything that you have to say. I do not care what happens to you.

Is that what God means and how God feels about people that are “Dead to God”?
(See, that is why YOU need to explain what YOU meant.)
Dead to God means you dead to God, you must be made alive by the New birth before any Spiritual life and fellowship and activity can take place.
 
Nonsense.

Argumentum ad nauseam


TULIP is specifically about salvation. The "T" in TULIP is therefore, specifically about salvation. Because the effects of sin are total, we cannot act to affect our own salvation. No one makes the "U," the "L," the "I," or the "P" about anything other than salvation but for some reason many feel justified making the "T" about something more and something other than what it is.


Thank you or your time but I won't be going around with another set of repetition where you do not define your terms, answer questions asked, or persist in making the specifically soteriological term "Total Depravity" something more than it is.
Yes man is by nature dead to God. Rom 5:15

15 But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many.

Its the opposite of belng alive to God Rom 6:11

Likewise reckon ye also yourselves to be dead indeed unto sin, but alive unto God through Jesus Christ our Lord.

Prior to Christ making one alive to God, they are dead to God.
 
No one said the cross prevents people from coming to God, you cant folllow a simple argument. The Cross brings to God them He died for.
No, but you insisted that what Christ did on the Cross wasn't sufficient to deal with the issue of sin. Like I said, He died for sin, not so everyone can have a pass into heaven. I followed your argument, you insist on extending Christ's work on the Cross beyond what it was.
 
Ugh. It is not the Cross that prevents men from coming to God. Nor did Christ die so men could get a pass to heaven. He died to remove the barrier that prevented the righteous God from having a relationship with unrighteous people without compromising His own Integrity (justice).

Look again at the verse you quoted. He suffered for sin that He might bring men to God. If you think our response to the Cross, even a negative one, somehow makes Christ's death ineffective, then you really don't know the power of the Cross.
<sigh>
You are implying that "might", in the verse you quoted, is an indication of uncertainty, but this is not the case. In up-to-date English, it's equivalent to "...in order to bring men to God." (the construction is a combination of intent and being in the future, relative to his suffering on the cross). God's intent to bring his elect, and only his elect, to the Lord, to save them, is effectual. It is the main purpose of the cross.
 
Dead to God means you dead to God, you must be made alive by the New birth before any Spiritual life and fellowship and activity can take place.
Respectfully, if God thinks that I am dead (ie. it is God’s will that I am dead), then I am dead … as in Second Death dead. God sustains all that exists … His will is our reality.

I think your definition has empirical problems (Even when I was spiritually dead in my sins and an enemy to God, I still existed, so I was clearly not “dead to God” … God did not regard me as not existing.)
 
No, but you insisted that what Christ did on the Cross wasn't sufficient to deal with the issue of sin. Like I said, He died for sin, not so everyone can have a pass into heaven. I followed your argument, you insist on extending Christ's work on the Cross beyond what it was.
False accusation.
 
Respectfully, if God thinks that I am dead (ie. it is God’s will that I am dead), then I am dead … as in Second Death dead. God sustains all that exists … His will is our reality.

I think your definition has empirical problems (Even when I was spiritually dead in my sins and an enemy to God, I still existed, so I was clearly not “dead to God” … God did not regard me as not existing.)
By nature man is dead to God, remains that way until Jesus makes them alive.
 
Yes man is by nature dead to God. Rom 5:15

15 But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many.

Its the opposite of belng alive to God Rom 6:11

Likewise reckon ye also yourselves to be dead indeed unto sin, but alive unto God through Jesus Christ our Lord.

Prior to Christ making one alive to God, they are dead to God.
I meant what I said last post. Plenty of opportunity to cease the redundancy, define your terms, evidence them with scripture, and then discuss them was provided. I've no interest in ad nauseam.
 
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