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The Image of Christ

Seeing as how the Passover is a liturgical requirement for Jewish folk, then I think
it safe to assume Jesus will have a human form in the future.
Jesus has a human form....right now.
 
Jesus has a human form....right now.

Personally I'm convinced there is sufficient textual support for that view, for example:

"For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men; a man: Christ Jesus."
(1Tim 2:5)


The Greek word for "men" as well as the word for "a man" is derived from anthropos
--a common Greek word for physical men throughout the New Testament.

Also; Jesus is said to be a high priest (Heb 4:14) Those are always selected from
among their own fellow men (Heb 2:16-17 & Heb 5:1-2)

Plus: Jesus' priesthood is patterned after that of a priest in Genesis named Melchizedek
(Ps 110:4) So then, seeing as how Mel was a physical man, then Jesus has to be that too.

* There are probably folks out there somewhere who would argue that for all
intents and purposes; a human consisting of spirit material is just as useful as a
human consisting of solid material. Well; I really don't think we should go down
that road because for one thing, it seriously questions whether Jesus' crucified dead
body was restored to life, and it also questions how a spirit being would go about
dining upon common foods and beverages per Matt 26:29 & Luke 22:15-16.
_
 
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A better man would be someone who cannot fall.

Jesus is presented as God's "begotten" son which is translated from a Greek word
that pertains to one's natural child rather than an adopted child and/or a foster
child. For example Luke 7:12, Luke 8:42, and Luke 9:38.

Jesus is also presented as God's "only" begotten son, meaning of course that Jesus
is God's sole paternal descendant (John 1:14, John 3:16, John 3:18, and 1John
4:9) whereas others are taken into God's home by adoption. (Rom 8:15-16, Gal
4:4-6, Eph 1:4-5)

Jesus' heredity was quite an advantage. It's no mystery then why John 8:29, 2Cor
5:21, Heb 4:15, and 1Pet 2:22 claim Jesus committed no sins of his own to answer
for.

1John 3:9 . . No one who is born of God practices sin, because His seed abides in
him; and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.


FAQ: If it was impossible for Christ to sin; then what practical purpose did the
Devil's temptation serve per the 4th chapter of Matthew?


REPLY: Christ testified "I always do the things pleasing to Him" (John 8:29). The
Devil's failure to break Christ certifies the truth of his statement. In other words:
Christ was proof-tested to demonstrate that he contains no flaws.

No doubt the Devil expected that after forty days in the outback without food, Jesus
would be worn down to the point where he would no longer care whether he sinned
or not. But it made no difference. Jesus was still just as incapable of sin after forty
days of privation in the outback as he was during the first thirty years of his life in
Nazareth because his innocence didn't depend upon resolve; rather, upon his
genetics so to speak; viz: seeing as how God cannot be enticed (Jas 1:13) then
neither can a chip off the olde block be enticed.

Now, if Jesus is the pattern to which his followers are destined to conform, then for
sure we will never fall.
_
 
Jesus has a human form....right now.
It would seem there is only one propmised three day and night demonstration of the lamb slain from the foundation .the six days Christ did work

Christ the husband working in the powerless Son of man Jesus dying mankind . Christ pouring out His Holy Spirit life in jeapordy of his own Spirit Life on dying flesh and blood

God is not a man a us.

2 Corinthians 5:16King James VersionWherefore henceforth know we no man after the flesh: yea, though we have known Christ after the flesh, yet now henceforth know we him no more.
 
God is not a man a us.
Partially true. Jesus had no human father...like us.

But

For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but one who in every respect has been tempted as we are, yet without sin.
 
Jesus had no human father...like us.

To my knowledge, Mary was the only virgin mother in Jesus' line. All the other
women-- e.g. Sarah, Rebecca, Leah, Tamar, Ruth, and Bathsheba etc. --slept with
men to produce Jesus' ancestors beginning with Eve; about whom it's said:

"So the Lord God said to the serpent: "I will put enmity between you and the
woman, and between your offspring and hers; he will crush your head, and you will
strike his heel."

In other words: Jesus may not have had an immediate father, but he had lots of
grandfathers; the nearest was Mary's dad.


FAQ: From whence virgin-conceived baby Jesus obtain a Y chromosome for his
male gender?


REPLY: In the beginning, Eve's entire body-- inside and out, front to back, top to
bottom, and side to side --was constructed with material taken from Adam's body.
(Gen 2:21-22) So if God could construct an entire woman from material taken from
a man's body, then it shouldn't be too difficult for Him to construct a teensy little
chromosome from a woman's body.

Seeing as how Eve is the mother of all women (Gen 3:20 & Acts 17:26) then any
material taken from Mary's body to construct a Y chromosome for baby Jesus would
be owed to Eve's body; and by construction: to Adam's body.

The beauty of it is that a Y chromosome constructed with material taken from Mary's
body wouldn't be an alien substance created ex nihilo; but would be 100% natural,
and easily traceable all the way back to Eve, and from thence to Adam.

I sincerely believe that what I posit herein actually took place when the power of
the Most High overshadowed Jesus' mom per Luke 1:35; and if my thoughts are
true, then little Jesus was thoroughly a Jew biologically descended from Abraham
as all other Jews.
_
 
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