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Rom 9: Confirms free will of man

Correct. . .

Foreknowledge (Gr: prognosis) is of God's decrees. . .which are determinative.

Please present the Scriptures where the Gr: prognosis is used to mean God's foreknowledge of men's actions.
Romans 8:28-30 identifies those who love God as the ones whom God foreknew, predestined, and called.

The practice of Reformed Theology to equate God's foreknowledge with His predestination is a terribly serious fault. As I said. God is omniscient, meaning His knowledge of everything from beginning to end is perfect. His foreknowledge is simply His omniscience of the future. His foreknowledge is perfect, it is complete. In Isaiah 42:9; 44:7; 46:10 God establishes His complete and perfect knowledge of all things future from the human point of view as an absolute requirement of being God.
 
It is hypocritical to get on someones case for not answering a question when you seldom answer questions that are put to you. Just one example is that I have asked you twice if you are a Trinitarian and you still have not answered. If you don't answer this time, I will have no choice but to consider that your answer is "No" and you wish to remain deceptive in your postings.
I believe that the Father, Son and Holy Spirit are three distinct and separate spiritual beings. They are God. They are one.
 
We can't believe unless we have been born again of the Holy Spirit.
It doesn't say that anywhere in the Bible. Among other things it does say "Even the demons believe" (James 2:19). Do you think they have been born again?
 
I have a few minutes to post a little, but I plan on resting more today than I have the last few, but, that can wait, this is more important. I do have a few grandchildren here that I need to spend a little time with, but they are busy at the moment.

Jim, I have no problem where to start any discussion, but those scriptures I used this morning were part of the discussion at hand. John 3:16 is addressing a totally different subject all together ~ but since you think it is important to our current discussion, let us look at John 3:16.

Without going deep into John 3:16, let me address only your main point where you said:

Jim, you are showing yourself to be a novice, which you should not be with all the years you have given yourself over studying the scriptures, yet you are doing what any unskilled student of the scriptures would do, or/and, what any person does who looks for opportunities to reject the teachings of a doctrine their flesh does not like. Such people quickly jump on sound bites that seemly would give their position some support.

Jim, I'm convince I ahve discussed this with you before, but just in case I have not, once more let me give you the only true biblical sense that can be given that would flow with all other scriptures from Jesus' words recorded in John 3:16. Jim, very simple to see and understand.

Jesus is speaking to a leader of the Jews, and he is now revealing another truth to Nicodemus (he already revealed the mystery of being born again, that it must proceed seeing, hearing and understanding) now he revealing that God's love is not limited to the Jews only, but for the Gentiles also, by using the word world. World in John 3:16, does not mean all without an exception, as you and others desire for it to mean, but is used to means all without distinction!
As is so typical of the Calvinist/Reformed Theology camp, you tend to redefine words in the Bible to conform with your own view of things. The "world" in John 3:16 cannot be limited to only the "elect" as you call them, the word "elect" being another word you redefine to conform with your own view of things. Rather; in that verse the "world" it is the entire human race. It can be no other.

Jesus, in Matt 22:37, declared that the commandment, "You shall love your neighbor as yourself" was the second great commandment upon which all the Law and the Prophets depend. Now who, but the rest of all humanity, constitutes your neighbor in that statement? God requires us to love all men, but you declare that God doesn't and that He loves only a few select ones. That is a gross distortion of who God is.

Yes, by using the word world in John 3:16, it DOES mean all without exception. There is no command that we love or like what they do, what they say, how they behave or anything about them, but we do have to love them for the human being that they are.

Romans 3:29​

Is he the God of the Jews only? is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also:”

Jim, in the OT and up until Christ's death. God was the God of the Jews only, but a mystery hidden in the OT is now made know that He is the God of both Jews and Gentiles, his elect are from every nation under heaven.

I'm stopping for now since there some grandchildren that wants my attention for a while....later....RB
I would say that God was always a God of the Gentile as well as the Jew. However, it was only to the Jew, nationally, that God initially gave His special written revelation. A mystery biblically is not something that did not exist, rather, it was something that had not been revealed.
 
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@JIM

As is so typical of the Calvinist/Reformed Theology camp, you tend to redefine words in the Bible to conform with your own view of things. The "world" in John 3:16 cannot be limited to only the "elect" as you call them,

Yes it can be limited to the elect, like its limited to the non elect here Jn17:9

9 I pray for them: I pray not for the world, but for them which thou hast given me; for they are thine.

Its limited to the Gentiles here Rom 11 15

15 For if the casting away of them[national israel] be the reconciling of the world[gentiles], what shall the receiving of them be, but life from the dead?
 
It doesn't say that anywhere in the Bible. Among other things it does say "Even the demons believe" (James 2:19). Do you think they have been born again?
If the Son of God had to become a man in order to redeem men, what would he need to become in order to redeem demons? He makes no redemption for demons so they cannot trust in him for redemption. But the Bible indicates that they know exactly who he is. Chances are they knew him before the incarnation as they are spirit beings. (Invisible).

So if one cannot enter the kingdom of God unless they are born again, what must happen first, before they put their trust in Jesus to rescue them?
 
I believe that the Father, Son and Holy Spirit are three distinct and separate spiritual beings. They are God. They are one.
Thank you for answering.
 
Romans 8:28-30 identifies those who love God as the ones whom God foreknew, predestined, and called.
Ro 8:28-20 uses the verb proginosko, not the noun, prognosis, which noun refers only to God's foreknowledge of his own actions.
The practice of Reformed Theology to equate God's foreknowledge with His predestination is a terribly serious fault.
Actually, it is based on its NT usage, which governs the meaning of its words.

God's foreknowledge (Gr: prognosis) is used only of God's foreknowledge of his own actions, it is never used to refer to his foreknowledge of others' actions.
As I said. God is omniscient, meaning His knowledge of everything from beginning to end is perfect. His foreknowledge is simply His omniscience of the future. His foreknowledge is perfect, it is complete. In Isaiah 42:9; 44:7; 46:10 God establishes His complete and perfect knowledge of all things future from the human point of view as an absolute requirement of being God.
 
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The practice of Reformed Theology to equate God's foreknowledge with His predestination is a terribly serious fault.
Actually it doesn't do that. Those are two different subjects. As I have told you. and shown you the difference, and you continue to misstate in spite of that. And never address I might add. One of those things you dismiss as silly?

His foreknowledge is what he knows before it comes to pass. And he cannot know what doesn't exist yet---as in who will believe and therefore he elects them to believe (oxymoron). @Eleanor has described it very well, but you ignore. Foreknowledge deals with God's omniscience, to be sure, but also his sovereignty. He does not learn things, What he knows is because he is the one who will bring it to pass in our history. In whatever means he chooses. And he knew it all before he ever created our world and all that is in it. The evil of men, he even uses for his purposes. His predestination is why it comes to pass.
 
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Thank you for answering.
I knew what he believed, but was waiting on Jim to answer for himself. It is impossible for the Godhead to be three distinct persons in the true sense of those words~there is only ONE LORD GOD. There is a trinity concerning the Godhead, but it is only based upon the redemption of God's elect. I'll stop here and we can discuss this in its proper place. There are children of God on both sides of this issue, which neither side denies the deity of Christ as some cults do, they just are guilty of following creeds and others, instead of only following the testimony of the scriptures.
 
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I knew what he believed, but was waiting on Jim to answer for himself.
It is impossible for the Godhead to be three distinct persons in the true sense of those words~
"Distinct" is not "separate."
They are not persons if they are not distinct.
Jesus presents them as distinct persons.
there is only ONE LORD GOD.
Yes. . .Jesus shows three distinct persons in the (one being of the) ONE LORD GOD.

The Son is subject to the Father, for the son is sent by the Father in the Father's name (Jn 5:23, 36, 43).
The Holy Spirit is subject to the Father, for the Holy Spirit is sent by the Father in the Son's name (Jn 14:26).
The Holy Spirit is subject to the Son as well as to the Father, for the Holy Spirit is sent by the Son as well as by the Father (Jn 15:26, 167, 14:26, Ac 2:33).

One is not subject to oneself.
One does not send oneself in the name of oneself, one sends another person in the name of oneself.
The plain language of Jesus presents three distinct divine persons in the one God.
There is a trinity concerning the Godhead, but it is only based upon the redemption of God's elect.
The Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit have always been three distinct divine persons in the one God (Mt 28:19).
God the Son (Jn 1:1) also took on the nature of man in his enfleshment (Jn 1:14) in Jesus of Nazareth, who was both God and man--two natures (divine and human) in the one human person, Jesus of Nazareth.
God the Son is now forever the divine/human person, Jesus of Nazareth.

That is the plain testimony of Jesus in the NT.
 
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Rom 9:19 Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will?
And so the first domino of predeterminist deceit falls with v 19.
Wishful thinking Ghada ~and you certainly have not done anything to even question the truth of God's sovereignty concerning God vouchsafing mercy to whosoever He will, and whom he wills, He hardens.
Now we see where the accusation come from: The error of predeterminism of God, and no freewill of man. It is inmputed into the Scriptures on the election and judgment of God. And so leads to an obvious right to accuse Him of unrighteousness..

If no man can resist the will of God, being made without autonomous will in His image, then how can God justly judge men by their works? Whether doing good or evil, all men are only doing the will of God created in them, and so doing the works He wills men to do by making them that way.

And so, we see the lie of predertiminism is behind the self-justifying accusation against God, "It's not my fault God made me this way..."

Predeterminist self-justifiers in Paul's day were already declaring God has no right to judge them by their works, since they are only doing what God makes them to do by creation.

Romans 9 is about election after conception and judgment by works, and only when the lie of predeterminism is imputed into the Scripture, is an accusation against God made pertaining to His manner of election and judgment.
Ghada, I had to read this more than once to make sure I was reading you correctly~the results is that you are so confused as to what Romans 9:19 is saying ~ Ghada, you have flipped Paul's words totally around.

Paul was teaching us the truth of God's sovereignty of showing mercy to whom he will, and hardens others, by leaving them to themselves, which means they naturally get harder and harder in their sins against God, his word, etc. And if this is so, and it is, why some would ask.... "Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will?"

This truth does not...."And so leads to an obvious right to accuse Him of unrighteousness" as you claim!

You are so wrong on most of what you wrote above:

"If no man can resist the will of God, being made without autonomous will in His image, then how can God justly judge men by their works?"

"Whether doing good or evil, all men are only doing the will of God
created in them, and so doing the works He wills men to do by making them that way."

"they are only doing what God makes them to do by creation."


"Romans 9 is about election after conception and judgment by works, and only when the lie of predeterminism is imputed into the Scripture, is an accusation against God made pertaining to His manner of election and judgment."

Ghada, you need to go back and read what you wrote, it is a corruption of what Paul actually wrote in Romans 9. I'll come back and look at Romans 9:19 later.

 
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"Distinct" is not "separate."
They are not persons if they are not distinct.
Jesus presents them as distinct persons.

Yes. . .Jesus shows three distinct persons in the (one being of the) ONE LORD GOD.

The Son is subject to the Father, for the son is sent by the Father in the Father's name (Jn 5:23, 36, 43).
The Holy Spirit is subject to the Father, for the Holy Spirit is sent by the Father in the Son's name (Jn 14:26).
The Holy Spirit is subject to the Son as well as to the Father, for the Holy Spirit is sent by the Son as well as the Father (Jn 15:26, 167, 14:26, Ac 2:33).

One does not send oneself in the name of oneself, one sends another person in the name of oneself.
The plain language of Jesus presents three distinct divine persons in the one God.

The Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit have always been three distinct divine persons in the one God (Mt 28:19).
God the Son (Jn 1:1) also took on the nature of man in his enfleshment (Jn 1:14) in Jesus of Nazareth, who was both God and man--two natures (divine and human) in the one human person, Jesus of Nazareth.

That is the plain testimony of Jesus in the NT.
I'll be more than happy to discuss this subject in a proper place.

Take your post and put it in a tread we can discusses it. Thanks
 
His foreknowledge is what he knows before it comes to pass. And he cannot know what doesn't exist yet---as in who will believe and therefore he elects them to believe (oxymoron). @Eleanor has described it very well, but you ignore.
I do not ignore what @Eleanor said. I reject it as false which it is.

Your view that God cannot know what does exist yet is false as well. As I said in reply #221, God is omniscient, meaning His knowledge of everything from beginning to end is perfect. His foreknowledge is simply His omniscience of the future. His foreknowledge is perfect, it is complete. In Isaiah 42:9; 44:7; 46:10 God establishes His complete and perfect knowledge of all things future from the human point of view as an absolute requirement of being God.

Isa 42:9 Behold, the former things have come to pass, and new things I now declare; before they spring forth I tell you of them."

Isa 44:7 Who is like me? Let him proclaim it. Let him declare and set it before me, since I appointed an ancient people. Let them declare what is to come, and what will happen. 8 Fear not, nor be afraid; have I not told you from of old and declared it? And you are my witnesses! Is there a God besides me? There is no Rock; I know not any."

Isa 46:9.....I am God, and there is none like me, 10 declaring the end from the beginning and from ancient times things not yet done, saying, 'My counsel shall stand, and I will accomplish all my purpose,'

Those verses clearly speak of God's foreknowledge and it is not limited to what God decrees or causes. They speak against your view that God cannot know what doesn't yet exist.

Of alll the prophecies that you can read in the OT concerning what would happen, some are indeed caused by God, but some are not.
Foreknowledge deals with God's omniscience, to be sure, but also his sovereignty. He does not learn things, What he knows is because he is the one who will bring it to pass in our history. In whatever means he chooses. And he knew it all before he ever created our world and all that is in it. The evil of men, he even uses for his purposes. His predestination is why it comes to pass.
Once again you, perhaps unwittingly, posit a doctrine of determinism. It is false. It makes God the author and perfecter of evil.

We can understand how God can foreknow those future events that he himself has determined to cause, but the biblical teaching about foreknowledge (including many predictive prophecies) includes God’s knowledge of future contingent choices of free-will beings. How is such foreknowledge possible? The answer lies in the qualitative aspect of God’s eternity. The infinite God is not limited by time in that his consciousness transcends the now-moment and embraces the totality of history—past, present, and future—in a single act of knowing.

In a movement known as “openness theology,” a growing number of conservative theologians have begun to reject the reality of God’s foreknowledge. One reason for this is that such foreknowledge seems to rule out free will. If God actually knows what is going to happen before it happens, then it is certain to happen (otherwise God would be wrong), and the freedom and contingency of the future appear to be destroyed.

It is true that foreknowledge means that future events are in some sense certain. But the question is, what makes them certain? The foreknowledge itself? No, foreknowledge does not make things happen or make them certain; it only means that they are certain. What makes them certain is the acts themselves as freely chosen by their subjects, as viewed by God from his perspective of eternity. Certainty is not the same as necessity.
 
@JIM

Once again you, perhaps unwittingly, posit a doctrine of determinism. It is false. It makes God the author and perfecter of evil.

God is the first cause of all evil, for all evil served the eternal purpose of God in Christ Jesus Eph 3:11

11 According to the eternal purpose which he purposed in Christ Jesus our Lord:
This purpose was before a speck of dust was created.

Now Jesus means:
iēsous:


Jesus = "Jehovah is salvation"

  1. Jesus, the Son of God, the Saviour of mankind, God incarnate

So God purposed and is the first cause of His own purpose, all the evil needed to confirm His ""Jehovah is salvation" Eternal purpose. This meant moral/ethical evil by wicked men as per Acts 2:23

23 Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain:

God is the first cause of these wicked hands accordng to His eternal purpose in Christ Jesus, God is the author and determiner of this ethical evil moral behaviour of these wicked men

They did what God determined they should do, they had no choice but to do it and be guilty of the same
Acts 4:27-28


27 For of a truth against thy holy child Jesus, whom thou hast anointed, both Herod, and Pontius Pilate, with the Gentiles, and the people of Israel, were gathered together,

28 For to do whatsoever thy hand and thy counsel determined before to be done.

All this is relevant to the Doctrine of Gods determinism

BTW this is also the basis of Gods foreknowledge, that which He determined as Per Acts 2:23

23 Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain:

See Gods foreknowledge and determinate counsel are joined at the hip, this is beyond His omniscience of knowing everything
 
The second domino v 20:
Btw, the first so-called domino that you put forth is still standing! ;)
Right off, God's answer to the accusation is nay: God is not unrighteous to judge men by their works, as with Pharoah and Esau, because they did manifestly resist His will to do good by the children of Israel, and not sell God's birthright for beans.
Ghada, to say you are one confused person would be a understatement! You are showing yourself to be a novice~I do not know you, but you certainly are not grounded in the scriptures, no pun intended, just facing facts as you put forth some of your arguments.

God is not unrighteous to judge men of their works, but this is not what Paul is saying.

Romans 9:20~"Nay but, O man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, Why hast thou made me thus?"​

Nay but, O man.​

The sense of the words are, “No way, mere man! Who do you think you are to question God?” Instead of “God forbid,” Paul did not even acknowledge that they deserved that short of an answer! Paul strongly and strictly rebukes such objections and questions as not being fit for flesh and blood. Man was taken from the dust of the earth, and the last thing he should do is argue with His Creator. Those that like to question should consider who they are and that they will never have all answers. Remember Solomon’s, Jesus’, and Paul’s repeated thoughts about wasting time and risking faith on foolish and unlearned questions (Proverb 23:9; Matthew 7:6; 2nd Tim 2:23; etc., etc.).

Who art thou that repliest against God.​

As Solomon wrote, God is in heaven, and you are on earth, so let your words be few (Eccl 5:2). Rather than answering the question directly, Paul blew off the questioner and his question (9:20). God called men potsherds (broken pottery), and they should only argue with each other (Is 45:9). God is greater than man, as Elihu told the great Job, lest God killed him (Job 33:12; 36:16-18)! When scripture is presented and applied, as Paul had done (9:7-18), men should shut their mouths; there is no purpose, profit, or right to rationalize revelation. We humbly before God’s declarations. If the Bible says it, that settles it. Why do you need more? For there is no more to give you, and the perverse spirit that wants more will trouble you for life.

Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it.​

This logic is simple enough ~ should things made argue with their Maker? Dust with the Creator? Shall a creature question its own Creator as to the way it was made, or how, or to what end? Paul did not spend a single word softening the doctrine or trying make election more palatable. Neither shall we do so. Paul emphatically denied man the position, privilege, or right to even raise such foolish questions. This is the simple lesson taught from Romans 9;20~or, at least it should be simple to follow, and it is, if a parson does not have a precious agendas he/she is laboring to protect and put forth.
Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, Why hast thou made me thus?

In this question, there is no answer pertaining to how God creates men, but only that He does so, and is asked why. It does not pertain to being created with or without freewill. Reading one or the other into it, is a false assumption.
We agree with one part of your statement that we highlighted. But, man does find fault if God before one does any good or evil purposed to show mercy to one and not to the other, even twins in the womb of their mother, as was the case with Jacob and Esau.
It does not pertain to being created with or without freewill. Reading one or the other into it, is a false assumption.
As I said, I agree with you~but will add this....The content of Romans 9:1-17 is summarized with the truth that being a vessel of mercy is not of him that willeth, or him that runneth, but it is left to the sovereign will of the Creator, who has the sovereign right to make one a vessel of mercy, and leave others as vessels of wrath to be destroyed.
Third domino, v 21:
Btw the way, the second is still standing. Truth always falls before false gods/doctrine as Dagon did before the ark of God!
Ghada, I do not think you even have a stump left to support your false doctrine.

Coming back to make one more post and then I'm finished with addressing your opening four posts.
 
Your view that God cannot know what does exist yet is false as well. As I said in reply #221, God is omniscient, meaning His knowledge of everything from beginning to end is perfect. His foreknowledge is simply His omniscience of the future.
Nothing exists apart from God. He has to cause it to exist. He is the beginning and the end. It does not say he knows the beginning and the end. Your view would still have him learning things by looking into our future. Omniscience does not mean foreknowledge of the future. It is not even related to foreknowledge. It simply means there is nothing he does not know. And if he knows something it is because he ordained it. There are no contingencies with God. No circumstance. No happenstance. You simply cannot get outside of the box you have built to comprehend things can and do happen apart from the will of man.
Isa 42:9 Behold, the former things have come to pass, and new things I now declare; before they spring forth I tell you of them."
Notice the word "declare" in there? Do you think God is telling us what he sees by looking ahead into the future? Or is he telling us that all he has declared formerly have come to pass, and so too will the new things he declares come to pass, and this is what they are? Who is in charge of what comes to pass there?
Isa 44:7 Who is like me? Let him proclaim it. Let him declare and set it before me, since I appointed an ancient people. Let them declare what is to come, and what will happen. 8 Fear not, nor be afraid; have I not told you from of old and declared it? And you are my witnesses! Is there a God besides me? There is no Rock; I know not any."
Declare. Not look into the future and know.
Isa 46:9.....I am God, and there is none like me, 10 declaring the end from the beginning and from ancient times things not yet done, saying, 'My counsel shall stand, and I will accomplish all my purpose,'
Declaring. My counsel. I will accomplish.
Those verses clearly speak of God's foreknowledge and it is not limited to what God decrees or causes. They speak against your view that God cannot know what doesn't yet exist.
All things exist through him, and by him, and for him.
Of alll the prophecies that you can read in the OT concerning what would happen, some are indeed caused by God, but some are not.
Which is which and how would we know?
 
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