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Luther tried

Peter and Andrew are mentioned together (First Peter and Andrew...).
John 1:35-42 The next day John was there again with two of his disciples,

and as he watched Jesus walk by, he said, “Behold, the Lamb of God.”

The two disciples heard what he said and followed Jesus.

Jesus turned and saw them following him and said to them, “What are you looking for?” They said to him, “Rabbi” (which translated means Teacher), “where are you staying?”

He said to them, “Come, and you will see.” So they went and saw where he was staying, and they stayed with him that day. It was about four in the afternoon.

Andrew, the brother of Simon Peter, was one of the two who heard John and followed Jesus.

He first found his own brother Simon and told him, “We have found the Messiah” (which is translated Anointed).

Then he brought him to Jesus. Jesus looked at him and said, “You are Simon the son of John; you will be called Cephas” (which is translated Peter).

.... I am familiar with the other account though
 
The word "catholic" appears in the Bible in Acts 9:31, where it refers to "the church throughout [all] Judea, Galilee, and Samaria". The word "catholic" comes from the Greek word katholikos, which means "universal". It is a combination of the Greek words kata (concerning) and holos (whole).
 
The word "catholic" appears in the Bible in Acts 9:31, where it refers to "the church throughout [all] Judea, Galilee, and Samaria". The word "catholic" comes from the Greek word katholikos, which means "universal". It is a combination of the Greek words kata (concerning) and holos (whole).
yep : it is an adjective modifying the word "church"
It is NOT a proper noun.

I have never seen anyone denying there is one universal church.
 
yep : it is an adjective modifying the word "church"
It is NOT a proper noun.

I have never seen anyone denying there is one universal church.
The Way/Nazarenes/Christians/Catholics [Universal].... All the same Church/Faith
 
The Way/Nazarenes/Christians/Catholics [Universal].... All the same Church/Faith
When discussing the Biblical doctrine about the Church (ecclesiology).
Do you think it would make sense to use the Biblical definition and description of Church (ecclesia / ekklesia) as it is used in the NT?
 
When discussing the Biblical doctrine about the Church (ecclesiology).
Do you think it would make sense to use the Biblical definition and description of Church (ecclesia / ekklesia) as it is used in the NT?
The Lord founded ONE Church; ONE Faith. That Church/Universal has continued throughout the centuries as the Catholic Church.

Where the bishop is to be seen, there let all his people be; just as, wherever Jesus Christ is present, there is the Catholic Church (Ignatius of Antioch - Letter to the Smyrneans 8:2 [A.D. 110]).
 
Amen…the Church is all who are in Christ. I find it helpful to see any practical expression of the Church as Jesus described it when He said, “when two or three are gathered in my Nature, I am there”.
 
and some are in imperfect communion with that Church.... one faith
 
The Lord founded ONE Church; ONE Faith. That Church/Universal has continued throughout the centuries as the Catholic Church.

Where the bishop is to be seen, there let all his people be; just as, wherever Jesus Christ is present, there is the Catholic Church (Ignatius of Antioch - Letter to the Smyrneans 8:2 [A.D. 110]).
so your answer is "no"?

"When discussing the Biblical doctrine about the Church (ecclesiology).
Do you think it would make sense to use the Biblical definition and description of Church (ecclesia / ekklesia) as it is used in the NT?"
 
and some are in imperfect communion with that Church.... one faith
That is an impossibility. This point of view is a fleshly one and very much in error.
His Church has zero to do with any organization.
This is basic even to a young in the Lord one.
 
so your answer is "no"?
did you see a 'no'?

this is what you saw.... 🧐 👇

The Lord founded ONE Church; ONE Faith. That Church/Universal has continued throughout the centuries as the Catholic Church.

Where the bishop is to be seen, there let all his people be; just as, wherever Jesus Christ is present, there is the Catholic Church (Ignatius of Antioch - Letter to the Smyrneans 8:2 [A.D. 110]).
 
That is an impossibility
not only is it possible, it is true... the church that was sent with authority has already proclaimed it [with God's stamp of approval]. This is quite basis.
 
did you see a 'no'?

this is what you saw.... 🧐 👇
I don't see a "yes" either

"When discussing the Biblical doctrine about the Church (ecclesiology).
Do you think it would make sense to use the Biblical definition and description of Church (ecclesia / ekklesia) as it is used in the NT?"
 
I don't see a "yes" either

"When discussing the Biblical doctrine about the Church (ecclesiology).
Do you think it would make sense to use the Biblical definition and description of Church (ecclesia / ekklesia) as it is used in the NT?"
Your interpretation of a biblical definition? Was this the same ekklesia that Christ gave the keys to Peter?
 
The word "catholic" appears in the Bible in Acts 9:31, where it refers to "the church throughout [all] Judea, Galilee, and Samaria". The word "catholic" comes from the Greek word katholikos, which means "universal". It is a combination of the Greek words kata (concerning) and holos (whole).
I'm sure that we all know what "catholic" means, thanks.

As I've already pointed out, the vast majority of Greek manuscripts have the plural of ekklesia, in Acts 9:31, (i.e. assemblies). This accords with the usage throughout the N.T., in which ekklesia is always in the singular, in a town; but, always in the plural, in a region.
 
The Lord founded ONE Church; ONE Faith. That Church/Universal has continued throughout the centuries as the Catholic Church.

Where the bishop is to be seen, there let all his people be; just as, wherever Jesus Christ is present, there is the Catholic Church (Ignatius of Antioch - Letter to the Smyrneans 8:2 [A.D. 110]).
1) Ignatius of Antioch's letter is not inspired scripture.

2) He wrote long before Catholicism existed, so it's safe to assume that he simply meant the universal church of all believers in Jesus Christ.
 
I'm sure that we all know what "catholic" means, thanks.

As I've already pointed out, the vast majority of Greek manuscripts have the plural of ekklesia, in Acts 9:31, (i.e. assemblies). This accords with the usage throughout the N.T., in which ekklesia is always in the singular, in a town; but, always in the plural, in a region.
Peter made his rounds to the Church throughout.... they are all under the same umbrella -- different bishops [Jerusalem, Antioch, etc.]
 
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