Hi everyone,
I wrote this recent spate of inquiries for everyone's delight. Because scripture is silent on these matters the answers are, necessarily, going to be ones of speculation. The inquiries were intended to provoke a little thought, some consideration of scripture, some enjoyable conversation among us, and the opportunity to discuss some things in light-hearted manner (as opposed to the more serious and sometimes rancorous topics of salvation, end times, or the Trinity).
I do not think there is an answer to this op's inquiry.
Were I to venture an answer I, personally, suggest Adam's words serve as an example of sin's effect, not something God is stating as truth about Eve. The words are found in God's Word, but the words aren't God's words. God's Word is telling us what Adam said and, presumably, what Adam thought after he had disobeyed God, and sin and death had come upon him. One of the reasons I do not think Adam's words are Christologically soteriological (have to do with salvation in Christ) is because of Paul's comment in
1 Tim. 2:15, women will be saved through childbearing......
if they continue in the faith, love and holiness with self-restraint. In other words, those women are all already saved Christologically. They already have faith in Christ, they already know the love of God found therein and they are already holy = separated for sacred purpose. Paul is not saying a non-believing female can have salvation from sin by having babies. That would be salvation by works. However, perhaps I am wrong. Perhaps there is an answer found in the whole of God's Word and we need to continue investigating.
As far as this op goes, however, the op has served its purpose, and I appreciate everyone's participation. I hope the opportunity to have a little light-hearted speculation and fun was realized.
Mods, you can decide whether to close the thread accordingly or leave it open for future speculation and fun 
.
.
