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Are all men redeemed?

The "all men" is in context to whom He was addressing, that is, Israel.
All of Israel not is born agin Israel. A Jew is one inwardly born of the invisible Spirit of Christ Not outward of the dying flesh of mankind
 
All of Israel not is born agin Israel. A Jew is one inwardly born of the invisible Spirit of Christ Not outward of the dying flesh of mankind
I guess that excludes Abraham, David, Mary, and everyone until Pentecost.
Sad. No one made it to heaven before the Holy Spirit arrived.
NOT!
 
The "all men" is in context to whom He was addressing, that is, Israel.

He's redeemer of those "under the Law" and the world of non-Hebrew Gentiles are not under the Law. Never have been.
Jn 3:16 universal “world” all
whosoever that includes all

Jn 1:29 universal “the world” all
 
No. Only those under the Law: Israel.

4 But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,
5 To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons.
Gal. 4:4–5.

Clear and to the point.
So, what law must we follow to be saved?
 
The eternal moral law!
The Ten Commandments!
What do you do with the commandments you break? I'm sure you've lied once or twice in your life....is there any other of the 10 commandments you broke? If so....you've already failed.

How's your belief working out for you?
 
What do you do with the commandments you break? I'm sure you've lied once or twice in your life....is there any other of the 10 commandments you broke? If so....you've already failed.

How's your belief working out for you?
Repent, confess and do penance!

Jn 20:21-23
1 Jn 1:9
 
Jn 3:16 universal “world” all
whosoever that includes all

Jn 1:29 universal “the world” all
The word "world" is in context to whom Christ was given and He was given to the Hebrews/Jews as per covenant and prophecies in the OT. To us in English it can also apply to the planet, so did Christ die for the planet, too?
If there was another Greek word to encompass a'number' there would be a fifth Greek word translated "world" but there are only four Greek words by which they are translated "world." They are "kosmos" which is the Greek word in 3:16 and it means

Strong's: probably from the base of [#2865] (komizo); orderly arrangement, i.e. decoration; by implication the world (in a wide or narrow sense, including its inhabitant, literal or figurative [moral].)

So does it mean everyone because if Christ died for everyone then by virtue of His sacrifice, then everyone is saved - including the rich man in "hell." So, do you want to be the one to tell him he's in the wrong place? Or maybe it means "arrangement" or "decoration." Did Jesus die for the "arrangement" or "decoration"? Arrangement and decoration of what? No, it would have to apply to the inhabitants and again this means Jesus died for everyone ever born on the planet past, present, and future including the antichrist and false prophet. Universalism at its finest. Thank you Jesus.

That's the only way to take this word if you apply it including EVERYONE.
BUT if you take the word "world" in a limited sense in context to whom Jesus is speaking to: Nicodemus, a Jew, then it makes sense especially since Israel is in covenant with God and the world is not. The whole of the Law, Psalms, Prophets, the 37 'books' of the Old Testament is a history or the Hebrews, their covenants, their religion, their culture, and passages of Scripture prophesy a Deliverer being sent to the Hebrew people as Moses was sent to the Hebrew people (children of Israel), and Christ came to fulfill God's Law - not the world's law - and Christ was born under the Law to redeem those under the Law (Gal. 4:4) and the animal sacrifices atoned for one year the sins of the children of Israel, it makes bad hermeneutics and interpretation to change horses in mid-stream and all of a sudden Christ died for everyone born the whole world - including the antichrists, Hitler, Mao, Antiochus Epiphanies, Alexander the Great, Atilla the Hun - regardless that these barbarians never heard of Jesus, then you have a false doctrine in your head that has no precedent in Scripture and Scripture is broken. Something Jesus said can NEVER happen because God is orchestrating human history and will bring all His Word to fulfillment.
So, show me an OT Scripture that declares Gentiles are under the blood of the Mosaic covenant sacrificial system and then show me another to back that up.
Guess what? There are NONE. So, that teaching that Jesus died for everyone in the world including antichrist and the false prophet is heresy because Gentiles do not know Greek nor OT doctrine which states throughout the OT that God has salvation covenant with the Hebrew/Israel. Not the whole wide world.
 
That is a trinitarian teaching, not Jesus' teaching.

I am Jesus' servant.
No, that is bible teaching.
The purpose of the Law is to communicate God's Holy and Righteous Nature.
It by virtue of its existence also shows how much we fall short of His glory.
But after we are born again it is used to instruct us in God's righteousness and since Jesus fulfilled the Law and its Holy requirements and Christ is in us as our Substitute, God also sees us as having perfectly obeyed every requirement of the Law and in this is our justification, God declaring us "Not Guilty!"
 
No, that is bible teaching.
The purpose of the Law is to communicate God's Holy and Righteous Nature.
It by virtue of its existence also shows how much we fall short of His glory.
But after we are born again it is used to instruct us in God's righteousness and since Jesus fulfilled the Law and its Holy requirements and Christ is in us as our Substitute, God also sees us as having perfectly obeyed every requirement of the Law and in this is our justification, God declaring us "Not Guilty!"
It is trinitarian teaching, not of Jesus.
 
No, that is bible teaching.
The purpose of the Law is to communicate God's Holy and Righteous Nature.
It by virtue of its existence also shows how much we fall short of His glory.
But after we are born again it is used to instruct us in God's righteousness and since Jesus fulfilled the Law and its Holy requirements and Christ is in us as our Substitute, God also sees us as having perfectly obeyed every requirement of the Law and in this is our justification, God declaring us "Not Guilty!"
Jesus says "If you love Me, keep My commandments."
 
Jesus says "If you love Me, keep My commandments."
That is spoken to a people already in covenant and saved.
And to an unsaved person obeying His commandments does not save you.
 
Me, you....and the rest of the humans on earth.
That's not correct. Jesus was sent to the lost sheep of the House of Israel. Jesus taught the House of Israel their Law from God given through Moses to the children of Israel in the desert at the time of the Tabernacle.
Are you the Hebrew House of Israel?
No, you are not. So, Jesus' commandments don't apply to you unless you are the House of Israel (Hebrew.)
The Old Testament is a history of the seed of Abraham and details God's relationship with the seed of Abraham.
Are you the seed of Abraham? No, you are not. So, the "me," "you," and "us" doesn't apply to you.
Stop trying to steal Israel's inheritance. As Gentile you were never under the Law so stop trying to insert your Gentile butt into the Hebrew covenants. It's dishonest and proves you are a liar (Prov. 30:6), when you add to God's words in the bible.
 
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