The Immaculate Conception (of Mary)

[Papa Smurf]

Catechism of the Catholic Church
491 Through the centuries the Church has become ever more aware that Mary, "full of grace" through God, [Lk 1:28] was ~redeemed from the moment of her conception~. That is what the dogma of the Immaculate Conception confesses, as Pope Pius IX proclaimed in 1854: [411]

The most Blessed Virgin Mary was, from the first moment of her conception, by a singular grace and privilege of almighty God and by virtue of the merits of Jesus Christ, Saviour of the human race, preserved immune from all stain of original sin. [Pius IX, Ineffabilis Deus (1854): DS 2803]​

492 The "splendour of an entirely unique holiness" by which Mary is "enriched from the first instant of her conception" comes wholly from Christ: she is "redeemed, in a more exalted fashion, by reason of the merits of her Son". [LG 53, 56] The Father blessed Mary more than any other created person "in Christ with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places" and chose her "in Christ before the foundation of the world, to be holy and blameless before him in love". [Cf. Eph 1:3-4] [2011, 1077]

493 The Fathers of the Eastern tradition call the Mother of God "the All-Holy" (Panagia), and celebrate her as "free from any stain of sin, as though fashioned by the Holy Spirit and formed as a new creature". [LG 56] By the grace of God Mary remained free of every personal sin her whole life long.
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Greetings everyone I have long wondered about this, and since the topic was just broached (in a way) in my other thread on The Franciscan Thesis, I thought that I'd go ahead and ask a question about this too (The dogma of The Immaculate Conception of Mary, that is).

I realize that there is probably no answer for this (even from our Catholic friends), but I've always wondered, if God did this for Mary, why not do it for the rest of us too IOW, why not recreate us into what we were always meant to be before our progenitors sinned, as the Catholics teach that the Holy Spirit did for Mary?

BTW, I've asked this question because I do not believe that the RCC teaching of Mary, as another Immaculate Conception, is true, so the question is really all about why the Catholic Church would choose to believe and teach this, not whether it's true or not.

God bless you!!

--Papa Smurf

Luke 1​

46 Mary said, my soul doth magnify the Lord,​

47 And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour.​

 

[Carbon]

Catechism of the Catholic Church
491 Through the centuries the Church has become ever more aware that Mary, "full of grace" through God, [Lk 1:28] was ~redeemed from the moment of her conception~. That is what the dogma of the Immaculate Conception confesses, as Pope Pius IX proclaimed in 1854: [411]

Sad. So many people have bought into this deceptive lie.

The most Blessed Virgin Mary was, from the first moment of her conception, by a singular grace and privilege of almighty God and by virtue of the merits of Jesus Christ, Saviour of the human race, preserved immune from all stain of original sin. [Pius IX, Ineffabilis Deus (1854): DS 2803]​

Sad.

492 The "splendour of an entirely unique holiness" by which Mary is "enriched from the first instant of her conception" comes wholly from Christ: she is "redeemed, in a more exalted fashion, by reason of the merits of her Son". [LG 53, 56] The Father blessed Mary more than any other created person "in Christ with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places" and chose her "in Christ before the foundation of the world, to be holy and blameless before him in love". [Cf. Eph 1:3-4] [2011, 1077]

493 The Fathers of the Eastern tradition call the Mother of God "the All-Holy" (Panagia), and celebrate her as "free from any stain of sin, as though fashioned by the Holy Spirit and formed as a new creature". [LG 56] By the grace of God Mary remained free of every personal sin her whole life long.
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Doctrines of demons.

Greetings everyone I have long wondered about this, and since the topic was just broached (in a way) in my other thread on The Franciscan Thesis, I thought that I'd go ahead and ask a question about this too (The dogma of The Immaculate Conception of Mary, that is).

I realize that there is probably no answer for this (even from our Catholic friends), but I've always wondered, if God did this for Mary, why not do it for the rest of us too IOW, why not recreate us into what we were always meant to be before our progenitors sinned, as the Catholics teach that the Holy Spirit did for Mary?

Hmmm, I'm not even sure how to answer.

BTW, I've asked this question because I do not believe that the RCC teaching of Mary, as another Immaculate Conception, is true, so the question is really all about why the Catholic Church would choose to believe and teach this, not whether it's true or not.

Well, corruption came into the early church, and they bought into all sorts of things. May worship, I believe, came into the Church when emperors declared their empires Christian (Catholic), so everyone had to attend, even the pagan worshippers. And since much of the clergy was uneducated and many were illiterate, they bought into the deceptions and twists from the pagans about worshipping Mary and the Saints. If the clergy actually knew the Word better, they might not have been so easily fooled. Well, that's my understanding anyway.

God bless you!!

--Papa Smurf

Luke 1​

46 Mary said, my soul doth magnify the Lord,​

47 And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour.​