fastfredy0
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- May 30, 2023
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- Reformed Baptist
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- Married (one wife)
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- Libertarian
Short answer: God's glorify is the ultimate purpose of GodIf not everyone is predestined and no everyone has that ability for faith or belief , Why?
Any guesses as to why God would not want every one to have the faith in Jesus that we do?
Longer answers:
It would mean God's knowledge is not ETERNAL
If God's knowledge of his creatures were derived from the creatures by the impression of anything upon him, as there is upon us, he could not know from eternity, because from eternity there was no actual existence of anything but himself; and therefore there could not be any images shot out from anything, because there was not anything in being but God. Stephen Charnock - The existence and Attributes of God
It would contradict- Isaiah 40:13 Who has directed the Spirit of the Lord, Or has taught Him as His counselor? 14 With whom did He consult and who enlightened Him? Who taught Him the path of justice and taught Him knowledge And informed Him of the way of understanding?
God’s freedom is that attribute of God whereby he does whatever he pleases. This definition implies that nothing in all creation can hinder God from doing his will. God’s liberty of action (freedom) would be limited by the assumed powers and prerogatives of man’s “libertarian free will”.
The Glory of God would be deminished
Can God be pleased/glorified with anything which does not have its origin in Himself? If “free will” be an actuality, then God is not glorified by the salvation of individuals that He foreknew for He had no purpose for that individual’s decision. This contradicts Ephesians 1:11, Isaiah 42:8b My glory I will not give to another
Goodness - Luke 18:19 Jesus asked him. “No one is good except God alone. -goodness" in other things can only be derived from another; thus faith which is a goodness must come from God; because a creature being made of nothing, cannot be good, or essentially good, but by participation from another.
God's Independence
Romans 11:35 Who has first given to him, and it shall be recompensed unto him again?". His meaning obviously is, that men are altogether indebted to the preventing goodness of God, there being nothing in them, either past or future, to conciliate his favor. The force of this is, it is impossible to bring the Almighty under obligations to the creature; God gains nothing from us which harmonizes with His immutability.
The knowledge of God cannot arise from the things themselves, for then the knowledge of God would have a cause without him; and knowledge, which is an eminent perfection, would be conferred upon him by his creatures. “for known unto God are all his works, from the beginning of the world" (Acts 15:18). Stephen Charnock The Existence and Attributes of God
If you want to talk about irrationality then try to talk about something coming into being from nothing by itself. For example, "free will" which is a self-determined choice, would have to be self-created and for something to create itself it would have to be before it was which is a violation of the most rudimentary root of knowledge, the law of none contradiction.
Acts 20:35b It is more blessed [and brings greater joy] to give than to receive. If man can give something to God, then man would be more blessed than God in that act.
Job 41:11 Who has first given to Me, that I should repay him? Whatever is under the whole heavens is Mine. This would contradict “free will” which contends that we are to be rewarded for self-caused believing.
Love
The happiness of the creature cannot be the final end of God's action. There would be no wisdom in this case, because the superior would be subordinated to the inferior. This would be folly, not wisdom. It would be a maladaptation of means to ends. The end would be made the means, and the means the end. The infinite would exist for the finite. Moreover, happiness from its very nature cannot be an ultimate end, because to seek it is to fail of getting it. William Shedd
YADA, YADA, YADA ... NOT TO MENTION THE 100s of