Come let us reason together and look closely at what it says and what it does not say.
Isaiah 53:4, 10 [ESV]
4 Surely he has borne our griefs and carried our sorrows; yet we esteemed him stricken, smitten by God, and afflicted. ... 10 Yet it was the will of the LORD to crush him; he has put him to grief; when his soul makes an offering for guilt, he shall see his offspring; he shall prolong his days; the will of the LORD shall prosper in his hand.
In verse 4, note closely that it DOES NOT say that Jesus WAS smitten by God. It DOES say that "WE" esteemed him smitten by God. This is an opinion of men rather than a pronouncement from God. Let us quickly look at the fulfillment of this in the NT:
- Matthew 27:39-44 [ESV] And those who passed by derided him, wagging their heads and saying, "You who would destroy the temple and rebuild it in three days, save yourself! If you are the Son of God, come down from the cross." So also the chief priests, with the scribes and elders, mocked him, saying, "He saved others; he cannot save himself. He is the King of Israel; let him come down now from the cross, and we will believe in him. He trusts in God; let God deliver him now, if he desires him. For he said, 'I am the Son of God.'" And the robbers who were crucified with him also reviled him in the same way.
- Are these really the people whose spiritual insight we want to be following? These are the people that "esteemed him stricken by God" as Isaiah predicted.
In verse 10 it states that it was THE WILL OF God to crush Jesus. First, acknowledging what it DOES SAY ... this action (presumably the beating and crucifixion, we must infer the meaning of "crush" since Jesus was not literally crushed) was the WILL of God. God meant it to happen just as it did. Now if I may be permitted to split a "God-breathed" hair. It would have been a simple matter for Isaiah to have written that the LORD crushed him (Jesus), but he did not. It was merely the will of God that Jesus BE crushed.
Who killed Jesus?
- Act 2:22-23 [ESV] "Men of Israel, hear these words: Jesus of Nazareth, a man attested to you by God with mighty works and wonders and signs that God did through him in your midst, as you yourselves know-- this Jesus, delivered up according to the definite plan and foreknowledge of God, you crucified and killed by the hands of lawless men."
- "Lawless men" killed Jesus. While they were clearly the tool of God's "will", there is nothing suggesting they were the instrument of God's wrath ... Is there?
So who says Jesus death was about WRATH?
Only the crowd mocking God in Matthew 27 (and PSA).
Can you see why I am reluctant to embrace WRATH as God's motive without some clearer scriptural proof?
What if it was the will of the FATHER and SON that the beloved SON should be crushed (suffer and die at the hands of evil men) to obtain the goal of CURSING sin and utterly defeating its power over all who are "in Christ" ... thereby redeeming a people for the GODHEAD that will honor the SON and bring glory to the FATHER?
[WRATH never enters into the picture.] What in Isiah 53 needs to be changed? Anything?