But that is not the reason that God would eternally condemn anyone.
With respect, it is evident from prior posts' answers to "What does scripture states is the reason for condemnation?" that you do not have a clue what causes condemnation beyond disobeying the Law. This is, perhaps, the single greatest area of study that needs to happen. I have repeatedly stated the Law is not the only measure of sin and that has repeatedly been ignored, other than to appeal to the completely irrational argument assuming all other measures are themselves measured by the Law.
Sin, not simply the capability to sin, is the basis for God's eternal condemnation.
Nope. Righteousness is the basis for God's judgment and condemnation is the result of His judgment.
Physical, cellular level damage, does not produce the condition of being dead in trespasses and sins, thereby needing to be made alive again.
It most certainly does. God made Adam and Eve perfect, and He made them in His own image (they were incomplete, but perfectly incomplete). The moment they sinned they bore the mark of sin. God does not need to "investigate" that. Divine righteous recognizes unrighteousness instantly. The ever-faithful God instantly recognizes a lack of faith and faithlessness when it happens (He does not need to enter the garden to look to see if it has occurred). The Law Maker who governs the workings of His creation does not need to ask if a law was broken to know that even has occurred. He knows it instantly because He is ever-present throughout all His creation and He knows when the good and sinless creation He made has become adulterated and corrupted by the entrance of sin. Do you think God was oblivious to what had happened? Was He oblivious to the fact that when He came into the garden and asked Adam where He was He did not already know the entire creation was different?
God looks at the sinful person and KNOWS that person is no longer bearing the same image, the same uncorrupted, unadulterated, sinless image with which s/he was originally created. There's not one cell in any human that God does not know. He does not need to look, but when He does look upon the sinner He sees soiled rags, refuse that is in itself only useful for discarding, no longer righteous, no longer holy, no longer faithful. We all bear that mark. Adam bore that mark the moment he disobeyed God and God knew it. The wages of sin is death. That sentence was decided before the act was committed. That sentence was decided before the Law of Moses ever existed. That sentence was prescribed by the command given in Genesis 2:17.
No they are not mutually exclusive conditions. However, the second is not correct.
LOL. If they are not mutually exclusive conditions, then both conditions are correct..... and you've just contradicted yourself.
We have caused ourselves to be dead in trespasses and sins; however, Adam did not such thing.
????? Adam did not cause himself to be dead in trespasses and sins? Is that statement an unintentional mistake?
Your sin does not reign over me or anyone else and neither does Adam's sin.
I did not change the world. Neither did you. That statement is a false equivalence. It attempts to compare the changes that occurred at Genesis 3:6-7 in repetition to any already changed world. It's argument is that sin did not affect and already sinful world in the same way sin affected the not-yet-good-and-sinless world.
It's an irrational argument.
Not if it consistent with the rest of God's revelation.
That's the point. It is not consistent with the whole of scripture. In point of fact, the arguments presented are woefully uninformed, incomplete, often fallacious, and everything but an accurate reflect of God's whole revelation. You've got sin being measured by only one metric, ignoring all the other measures scripture declares. That's is NOT "the rest of God's revelation. That is the exact opposite of the rest of God's revelation. That is measuring the entirety of God's revelation by one single verse.
You've also got one third of Romans 5:12 measuring all of scripture. Exegetically speaking that's even worse than the misuse of a whole verse like 1 John 3:4. The phrase "one man" is mentioned multiple times in the chapter and EVERYTHING reported in that passage is predicated on the one man and his act of disobedience. ALL of it. Despite this point being made multiple times in this thread (and every other thread you and I have enjoined on this topic) it's all been ignored. Understand me correctly: it's not my posts's pint that has been ignored, it is the report of scripture that has been ignored.
You've got a limited understanding of disobedience's effect on creation, too, believing Adam's disobedience affected only Adam and not ALL of creation (or at least the world, earth). The entire created make up and order of the world changed the moment sin entered it. Any intelligent person could soundly, rationally reason through that one fact of scripture and you are sufficiently intelligent, but there's not a word in this entire thread where that fact has been engaged to even explore the logical necessities resulting from sin's entrance into the world
as whole scripture informs that event.
Man-made volitionalist doctrine is relied on too much, and NOT the rest of God's revelation.
Every single cell in Adam and Eve's body was eventually affected by sin. God in His infinite abilities knew that before He ever examined them and the instance He did examine them He saw the exact opposite of what He had created. The good human was no longer good. The sinless human was no longer human. The human who was ontologically capable of eating from the tree of life was no longer allowed to do so lest sin endure forever. Because imperfection does not and cannot (pro)create perfection all humanity was lost. Every child born of Adam and Eve was unavoidably going to be imperfect. Death came to all men through sin because all sinned and ALL of that is predicated on one man and his act of disobedience.
You've argued sin does not affect the flesh and I've posted scripture explicitly stating the post-Genesis 3:7 flesh is in fact sinful. That's part of the rest of God's revelation that has been neglected and ignored.
By the transgression of the one [man], death reigned through the one [man]... So then as through one transgression there resulted condemnation to all men... That is what the passage explicitly states. You focused on one verse (a third of one verse) and ignored all the rest of God's revelation in that chapter. The larger passage explicitly states through the one transgression condemnation came to all men. The same exact condition exists when the revelation later states,
through one man's disobedience the many were made sinners. That is what the text explicitly states. It is what the rest of God's revelation explicitly states. There's no inferences necessary. No speculation asserted. Just God's word read exactly as written.
In other words,
Not if it consistent with the rest of God's revelation.
That statement is laughable given the amount of God's revelation the volitionalist argument presented in this thread has repeatedly either neglected, ignored, or denied.
in sinful flesh. The antithesis reigns in sinful flesh. Adam let that guy "sin" into the world, and he's been a bull in the proverbial China chop ever since. The entire world changed and everything - including every human ever born into it - was likewise changed.
