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"The Word Became Flesh"

So when I quote directly from his commentary with him calling the the Word an it it's just I have no idea what I am talking about and I'm being dishonest? LoL ok. Yet when people who deny what Meyer explicitly said in multiples verses in his commentary then they are the correct ones? Me thinks you are just going to reject anything that doesn't validate what you believe.
Yes God is not a "it" .He is God, the unseen Holy Spirit of life .

Satan who would have mankind believe "it" is a person, Jewish man as King of kings . Still his goal today.

The father of lies will be released for a short while at the end of the age to again try and deceive mankind as he did with our brother in the Lord, Peter . that God is a Jewish man as king of kings.

The lord In Mathew 16 said blessed are you Peter because God has revealed "it" (his eternal word) .The father of lies turned "it" the gospel the word of God into a oral traditons of dying mankind.

Peter who thought the "it" in verse 17 and 18 was of himself took upon his own self as if he was God ,and began to rebuke God ,and forbid the Son of man, Jesus from doing the will of the father saying, Be it far from thee, Lord: this shall not be unto thee.

Mathew 16:17 And Jesus answered and said unto him, Blessed art thou, Simon Barjona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto thee, but my Father which is in heaven. And I say also unto thee, That thou art Peter, and upon this rock I will build my church; and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it.

Three things make up the very essence of God . God is Spirit .God is Love, God is light. And not that he can only exercise as attributes but again the very essence.

Two witnesses using parables to give us the unseen spiritual understanding hid from the lost. Genesis 1 alongside of John1

Genesis 1:1-5 In the beginning God (who is not a word but speaks words) created the heaven and the earth. And the earth was without form, and void; and darkness was upon the face of the deep. And the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters. And God (who is light) said, Let there be light: and there was light.And God saw the light, that "it" was good: and God divided (interpreted) the light from the darkness. And God called the light Day, and the darkness he called Night. And the evening and the morning were the first day.

Without parables (spiritual understanding) Christ spoke not .

1 Corinthians 2: 14 But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.

Again we must search for the spiritual unseen gospel. His understanding hid in parables. Foolish to those who look to the temporal historical seen and not the mix with unseen things of God. faith to faith. ( the law of faith )

God who alone is the good light. Introduces himself to a dark world. And God spoke his living word. "let there be" understanding between the dark and the light revealed by the word spoken of God. God is not a word .

Jesus the son of man dying mankind was not the light. He reflected it as children of light. . as the father empowers us even today ..

We do not glory in dying flesh and blood

John 1:1-5 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, (and the Word was God). The same (word) was in the beginning with God.All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. In him was life; and the life was the light of men.And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not. There was a man sent from God, whose name was John. The same came for a witness, to bear witness of the Light, that all men through him might believe. He was not that Light, but was sent to bear witness of that Light.

And "the word was God" above can be completely eliminated and the verse then makes spiritual or biblical sense understanding of the word agin spoken by God

John 1:1-5 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, The same word was in the beginning with God.
All things were made by him;. Nothing was made by the son of man Jesus, the temporal dying things seen

Dynamic dual ..not trinity

I think in that way the first "let there be Light" (understanding) is in respect to the letter of the law death. Jesus demonstrated the law of faith the the unseen eternal things of God you could say two laws working as one .the just law and the justifier the unseen thing of faith both working as one

Three (trinity) has it roots in Catholiscim needed to make room for the Queen mother and all her children "patron saints" gods in the likeness of dying mankind 3500 and rising .
 
Yes, one Spirit the Father's Holy Spirit as Christ. it worked in the Son of man Jesus just as with us today.
You're confusing me by creating a biblical contradiction...You say the Holy Spirit is God the Father...yet at the baptism of Jesus in the Jordon the Holy Spirit descended to Jesus and at the SAME TIME the Father spoke from heaven....How do you make that work?
 
It sounds interesting but would you show us how he rebutted your quote?

Show the exact verse you are talking about?
This is the quote he used to show Meyer said the Word in John 1 was an it.
"In John 1:2 is given the necessary premiss to John 1:3; for if it was this same Logos, and no other than He, who Himself was God, who lived in the beginning in fellowship with God, and consequently when creation began, the whole creation, nothing excepted, must have come into existence through Him. Thus it is assumed, as a self-evident middle term, that God created the world not immediately, but, according to Genesis 1, through the medium of the Word."
This was how I refuted it.
:ROFLMAO::ROFLMAO:Who doesn't understand what they are reading? Who claims to have at one time been and English teacher and sees that as saying Meyer's is calling the Logos an "it"? He is saying that if the first Logos of John 1:2 is the same Logos of John:3. which it is of necessity, then the "Logos is no other than He, who Himself was God who lived in the beginning in fellowship with God---"

He is not calling the Logos an it. The "it" connects the two Logos as being one and the same God. They are the same Logos.
 
Okay let's go back to the OP then. Why is the light called an it in John 1:5?
Because "light" in that passage is not being used as a name for Jesus. It simply says that He brought and is the light in the darkness of our world. It is not stating light as being Jesus in that particular passage but as what He brings.
 
If the word became flesh (man, incarnate) then he had to already exist before becoming flesh!

Jesus Christ is a divine person “the word” who became man! (The incarnate wisdom)

Philippians 2:8
And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and becameobedient unto death, even the death of the cross.

He existed Before being found in the fashion of a man.
 
Because "light" in that passage is not being used as a name for Jesus. It simply says that He brought and is the light in the darkness of our world. It is not stating light as being Jesus in that particular passage but as what He brings.
Jesus is the light.
 
Jesus is the light.
Yes but that is not the manner in which that particular portion of that scripture was using it.
 
I did not quote the verse.
Post 84 is the one you originally responded to saying Jesus is the light. I was answering a post of Runningman's. The scripture is listed. Keep track of your own posts and stop asking me to track them down for you.
Thanks.
 
Post 84 is the one you originally responded to saying Jesus is the light. I was answering a post of Runningman's. The scripture is listed. Keep track of your own posts and stop asking me to track them down for you.
Thanks.
You accused @Runningman for you don't know what you are talking about?
 
.
When the Word of John 1:1-3 came into the world as the flesh of John 1:14, he
didn't come as divine flesh, rather, as Jewish flesh.

"God sent His own son in the likeness of sinful flesh." (Rom 8:3)

As such; the Word's flesh was subject to all the liabilities and limitations imposed
on all Jewish flesh.

"Born of a woman, born under law." (Gal 4:4)

Now, in order to fully qualify for the throne given him by Luke 1:32-33, the Word's
flesh had to be biologically related to David.

Ps 132:11 . .The Lord has sworn in truth unto David; and He will not turn from it:
"Of the fruit of your body will I set upon your throne"

The New Testament verifies that the Word's flesh satisfied the paternal requirement.

Acts 2:29-30 . . Men and brethren, let me freely speak unto you of the patriarch
David, that he is both dead and buried, and his sepulcher is with us unto this day.
Therefore being a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him,
that of the fruit of his loins, according to the flesh, he would raise up Christ to sit on
his throne.

Rom 1:1-3 . . Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David
according to the flesh

The Greek word for "seed" is a mite ambiguous because it can refer to spiritual
progeny as well as biological progeny; but in David's case; seed refers to biological
progeny because Jesus was 1) the fruit of David's body and 2) of David's loins
according to the flesh.

Now the thing is: if the Word's flesh was really and truly David's paternal posterity,
then biologically the Word's flesh was also Adam's paternal posterity via Judah,
Jacob, Isaac, Abraham, Noah, Seth, and Eve.

So; if human life is the only kind of life that the first couple's flesh was capable of
producing, then how did Jesus become divine?
_
 
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Yes but that is not the manner in which that particular portion of that scripture was using it.
Meyer called the Word an it repeatedly in his commentary.

Anyway, since we're still on John 1, I am going to mention something about John 1:9.

John 1:9 says "The true Light who gives light to every man was coming into the world." This refers to the present tense.

For context, John the Baptist had come as a witness to testify about the Light according to John 1:6-8. At this point, Jesus was already 30 years old (Luke 3:23, John 1:35-37) by the time he had began his ministry.

So John 1:9 refers to the true Light coming into the world in the present tense, yet Jesus had already been in the world for 30 years.

The True Light gives light to all men and John 1:30 says Jesus is a man.

This means John 1:1-14 is about about the word of God manifesting in a man as just as 1 John 1:1-3 more plainly say.

All of this means Jesus isn't God. He isn't the True Light.

Who is the True Light? The True Light is God. God is the Father. He is the only true God, but Jesus is the one He sent.

John 17
3Now this is eternal life, that they may know You,[Father] the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom You have sent.
 
Christ not the Father who ascended into heaven!

1 Timothy 3:16
And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.

“Received up into glory”!

Acts 1:9 And when he had spoken these things, while they beheld, he was taken up; and a cloud received him out of their sight.

Christ was received up into glory!
God was received up into glory!

Jesus Christ the 2nd person of the holy trinity is God!
 
Christ not the Father who ascended into heaven!

1 Timothy 3:16
And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.

“Received up into glory”!

Acts 1:9 And when he had spoken these things, while they beheld, he was taken up; and a cloud received him out of their sight.

Christ was received up into glory!
God was received up into glory!

Jesus Christ the 2nd person of the holy trinity is God!
1 Timothy 3:16 doesn't contain "God was manifest in the flesh" because it was debunked as an accidental or deliberate alteration to copies of Paul's letter. The earliest known manuscript doesn't contain that.
 
1 Timothy 3:16 doesn't contain "God was manifest in the flesh" because it was debunked as an accidental or deliberate alteration to copies of Paul's letter. The earliest known manuscript doesn't contain that.
What did it say instead and prove it?
 
1 Timothy 3:16 doesn't contain "God was manifest in the flesh" because it was debunked as an accidental or deliberate alteration to copies of Paul's letter. The earliest known manuscript doesn't contain that.
Here we go again!

Any verse of scripture that opposes my little petty “pet” doctrine ain’t sacred scripture or the word of God!

1 Jn 5:7
1 tim 3:16
Not to mention Mk 16:16 and Matt 28;19!!!

Classic!
 
1 Tim 1:1 Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the commandment of God our Saviour, and Lord Jesus Christ, which is our hope;

Christ is God our Saviour!

1 Tim 1:17 Now unto the King eternal, immortal, invisible, the only wise God, be honour and glory for ever and ever. Amen.

Christ is eternal king!

Amen?
 
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