Yes, it implies that the people addressed in verse 9 (in contrast to the people referred to in the preceding verses) are saved...
Then the rest of the text should be read with that in mind.
What? I don't see where you get these claims from.
From the text.
Dealing with a set of professing believers often means addressing them in general terms, whilst knowing that the generalities might not apply to all of them. This is addressed, in Heb. 6:4-8, where one type of potential exceptions is noted.
I agree. However, it is incumbent upon any reader not to go beyond the text and what the text allows. I've repeatedly stated the salvation or lack thereof of those in question is one of inference because the text itself is specifically silent on the matter. The facts of the text are that there is a pile of attributes applicable only to the saved and nothing explicit about any lack of salvation. Several of those attributes were sampled and looked through the lens of other scripture and,
again, the attributes are applicable only to Christians and never to the unsaved. The silence of the text regarding their salvation is addressed by what it stated about the relevant group's attributes.
Having been given light, in the form of the essentials of the New Covenant, including that Jesus is the promised Messiah.
I'd ask you to prove that but that request has not been well received in this thread. I'll agree with you for the moment. If they have been given the
essentials of the new covenant
and we look at that from a Calvinist pov then there are only two options: they are saved, necessarily members of the elect and will persevere by God's hand simply because they were ordained as elect from eternity
regardless of their temporal conduct or level of maturity at the time, or they were never saved in the first place.
Scripture never applies the attributes list, including the essentials of the new covenant, to the unsaved.
Why should the fact that Christians with a Gentile background gain benefit from the book, mean that it's not written to and about Hebrews?
I did not say it wasn't. I said there is no evidence it was written ONLY to Hebrews.
Was the law of Moses specific to Israel? (yes)
Yes
Can Christians from a Gentile background gain benefit from reading it? (yes)
Yes, which means there is plenty of reason NOT to exclude Gentile converts. The inclusion of Tanakh does not necessitate a Hebrew-only audience. All of the NT writers employed the OT and they did so to both Jewish and Gentile convert audiences.
The only Gentile converts who could revert to Judaism, would be ones who had already been proselytes to Judaism....
Oh, that's not true. This forum is filled with Christians who "
reverted" back(wards) to Judaism. One of the many problems in the first century was the frequent Judaization of Christianity. Would you say the church in Ephesus was Hebraic or Jewish? Assuming not, then turn to Acts 19 because it was in Ephesus that the believers in Jesus knew only the baptism of John (a ritual taken from Tanakh). That apparently happened
before Paul entered the synagogue(s) to preach. that passage explicitly states there were both Jewish and Gentile converts.
In point of fact there is a fairly large sect within Christianity known as "Messianic Judaism," that couches its beliefs and practices in Judaism. That sect was invented in the 1960s by a Baptist (!) minister trying to meet the need of Jewish converts in his congregation. Like Luther, Calvin, Wesley, and many others in Christian history, I doubt he intended to invent a new denomination, but there it is. In fact, I know a lot of Messianic Jewish believers, and at least two of them do not claim to be Christians, even as they uphold Jesus as the Messiah, as Lord and Savior who saves from sin. They will openly say, "
I'm not a Christian, I am Jewish, a Messianic Jew!" Both of them are former Protestants (one Episcopal and the other Methodist), not former Jews. Even when not messianic Jews, we have members in this forum constantly teaching and expecting their readers to revert to Judaism.
Besides, Hebrews and Jews are not exactly the same
. The Pentateuch (which contains the Law) was given to Hebrews, not Jews. As I have pointed out many times, Tanakh and Judaism are not the same thing. Jesus taught Tanakh, not Judaism.
Lest we lose the point of all this: Hebrews 6:4 is not a very good verse upon which to base the statement made in the op about the external call. The external and internal call(s) is what we're supposed to be discussing. How would a verse purportedly about those
not saved evidence "
The external call functions only by means of the word and the Spirit does join Himself in common Illumination and historical faith"? It's a dubious verse to which make an appeal if they are unsaved, and untenable if they are saved. A few more efficacious verses have been posted, like the calling of Abraham where all we have in the initial report is the mere call (and command) but we later learn came with the giving of the gospel and the knowledge God would provide the sacrifice through His single seed, making Abe the father of many nations, nations that included..... Gentiles, not just Hebrews (there were no Jews at that time and the Law had not yet been given).