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The Ability To Choose - Free Will

goes both ways
Please present the Scriptures I am not addressing, as you are not addressing the following Scriptures:

"Known to the Lord before all the ages (prognosis) are his works," (Ac 15:18, 2:23, Ro 8:29; 11:2, 1Pe 1:2, 20) .
 
< sigh >

It's not just about the definition.
It's also about how the word (definition) is used in the NT where, when prognosis (foreknowledge) is used of God, it refers to his foreknowledge of his previous eternal decrees which determine everything, it does not refer to his foreknowledge of what men will do.
THIS IS WHAT YTOU SEE, I DO NOT


Demonstration that God's foreknowledge is of his own works, rather than the works of man, is in the following Scriptures:

"Known to the Lord before all the ages (prognosis) are his works," (Ac 15:18, 2:23, Ro 8:29; 11:2, 1Pe 1:2, 20) .
He knows his works (e.g.; election) because he has decreed that he shall do them.

So what about the above Scriptures do you not understand?

If you don't agree that the above Scriptures demonstrate my assertion that God's foreknowledge is of his own works, and not man's actions, then it falls to you to Biblically demonstrate how the above Scriptures do not demonstrate my assertion.
I see what the word says,.

it says prior knowledge

Nothing you have shown me would make me changed this view.. And I read those verses you keep posting. and I do not see it as you do..

I think this particular discussion has gone as far as it can go. so I am moving on
 
Please present the Scriptures I am not addressing, as you are not addressing the following Scriptures:

"Known to the Lord before all the ages (prognosis) are his works," (Ac 15:18, 2:23, Ro 8:29; 11:2, 1Pe 1:2, 20) .
see above
 
THIS IS WHAT YOU SEE, I DO NOT
Please present a verse using prognosis in relation to God that does not refer to foreknowledge of his own work.
I see what the word says,.

it says prior knowledge
Agreed. . .and of what is God's prior knowledge in the following, is it foreknowledge of man's deeds or foreknowledge of God's deeds:

"Known to the Lord before all the ages (prognosis) are his works," (Ac 15:18, 2:23, Ro 8:29; 11:2, 1Pe 1:2, 20)?

God's foreknowledge in the NT refers to foreknowledge of his own deeds, not of man's deeds.

So is it about seeing, or is it about believing?
 
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I have a cat and a dog who were raised together. Cat did cat and dog did dog.
Then the dog died, 16 years old
I buried the dog in an out of the way spot where people and cat did not usually go.
I put up a cross and hung the dogs collar on the marker
At sunset, every night for a week the cat went and sat at the grave.
The cat would sniff the collar and just sit, watching the sun go down.
Awww. . .that hurts.
 
Please present a verse using prognosis in relation to God that does not refer to foreknowledge of his own work.

Agreed. . .and of what is God's prior knowledge in the following, is it foreknowledge of man's deeds or foreknowledge of God's deeds:

"Known to the Lord before all the ages (prognosis) are his works," (Ac 15:18, 2:23, Ro 8:29; 11:2, 1Pe 1:2, 20)?

God's foreknowledge in the NT refers to foreknowledge of his own deeds, not of man's deeds.

So is it about seeing, or is it about believing?
I am going to move on,

it feels like we have come to a stalemate.

I am not trying to convince you to believe as I do. and I really do not care to look for verses you ask. considering I have alot of conversations going on. I may come back to this later.
 
I am going to move on,

it feels like we have come to a stalemate.

I am not trying to convince you to believe as I do. and I really do not care to look for verses you ask. considering I have alot of conversations going on. I may come back to this later.
It's not about convincing to my own beliefs, it's about what the NT actually teaches, which is arrived at by examining the Scriptures, which you are not interested in doing, and which leaves me only one conclusion. . .what one believes is more important than what Scripture actually teaches.
 
It's not about convincing to my own beliefs, it's about what the NT actually teaches, which is arrived at by examining the Scriptures, which you are not interested in doing,
This is why I am stopping this conversation.

I am more than interested in doing this and have.


and which leaves me only one conclusion. . .what one believes is more important than what Scripture actually teaches.
keep believing this way. I can not help what you think, I can only share what I believe.

if this is how you want to act however.

again, moving on..
 
This is why I am stopping this conversation.

I am more than interested in doing this and have.
Then why do you not address the Scriptures presented which are contrary to your assertion, as in:

"Known to the Lord before all the ages (prognosis) are his works," (Ac 15:18, 2:23, Ro 8:29; 11:2, 1Pe 1:2, 20)?

God's foreknowledge in the NT refers to foreknowledge of his own deeds, not of man's deeds.

So is it about seeing it, or is it about believing it?
 
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