Demonstration that God's foreknowledge is of his own works, rather than the works of man, is in the following Scriptures:
"Known to the Lord before all the ages (prognosis) are his works," (Ac 15:18, 2:23, Ro 8:29; 11:2, 1Pe 1:2, 20) .
He knows his works (e.g.; election) because he has decreed that he shall do them.
So what about the above Scriptures do you not understand?
If you don't agree that the above Scriptures demonstrate my assertion that God's foreknowledge is of his own works, and not man's actions, then it falls to you to Biblically demonstrate how the above Scriptures do not demonstrate my assertion.