Hi Arial
It's simple. Born again is the result of being placed in Christ (the Spiritual Church),
What makes you think 'born again' is not simultaneous with being placed in Christ? Where is your ordo salutis shown with Scriptural proofs, without presumptive interpretation, in this thread?
which is the result of receiving the indwelling of the Holy Spirit,
Or maybe being 'born again' is the direct result of being indwelt by the Holy Spirit, whether we are even aware of it or not!
which is called the baptism with the Holy Spirit,
What makes you sure the baptism with the Holy Spirit is the same thing as being indwelt by the Holy Spirit?
which is the result of faith. Each step has been proven with Scripture.
Says who? No, it hasn't been proven with Scripture
Also proven with Scripture is that OT believers were not indwelt with the Holy Spirit, yet they believed.
Says who?
That's proof that a man doesn't need to be born again to believe. He needs to believe to be born again.
Says who?
What do I call the act of God that brings a person to faith, I don't know. I know people want a place for it in their system, but I car not for their system. I only care that it's the word of God. If that leaves questions to be answered, then so be it. I do know that it's from God, and it's not born again. God draws. He sanctifies through His Word, which I will get into more later. I keep answering, but you guys aren't hearing.
You need to get us past your own roadblock, if you want us to continue down your road. It is not as smoothly paved as you seem to think.
How can a person be baptized into Jesus' death and raised up with Him (born again) without being placed "in Him", the Spirit baptism?
Assuming that 'Spirit baptism' is the the correct term/concept here, your words turn on themselves. Earlier you say that being indwelt by the Spirit is the baptism of the Spirit, do you not? We say being indwelt IS the cause of those subsequent facts, to include salvific faith and being placed "in Him", and born again. So why the objection here?
How can there be a Spirit baptism without the agent of that baptism to indwell the believer, the Holy Spirit?
Same. If Spirit baptism is what you claim it is —i.e. being reborn— then we do say that the Holy Spirit indwells the believer.
How can there be the indwelling of the Holy Spirit without faith?
Once again: The indwelling of the Holy Spirit is not caused by faith. The gift —the Spirit of God, which is the very cause of salvific faith— is free, and so the faith he produces inside us is, too. We cannot produce it. Your questions assume, somehow, that the indwelling is somehow according to the volition of the believer née unbeliever. You have not proven otherwise. Your logic needs to begin there.
How can an OT believer have the indwelling of the Holy Spirit, when God never took up residence in a believer until after the death, resurrection and ascension of Jesus? In other words, how can the OT believer be a Temple of the Holy Spirit?
Presumptive claim, that God never took up residence in a believer until after the death, resurrection and ascension of Jesus. That is not what the Bible says. It is what you attach to what the Bible DOES say. While I happily grant you, Jesus speaks in terms that TO US are implicative of some kind of displacement, that if Jesus does not leave, the Advocate will not be here, we can't use that verse alone to imply that the Spirit is always and everywhere and in every way only localized.
You are speaking as though the human view of reality is all there is to be considered.
How can a person be baptized into Christs death and raised up with Him before there was a death and resurrection to identify with "in Him" to make us born again? Remember, we are baptized into His death with Him, and raised up with Him.
What does a temporal "before" and "after" have to do with anything?
Being delivered from the power of sin (born again) is the result of faith, not the cause of it. You said it yourself and believe it, Arial. I believe it too.
Where did
@Arial say 'being born again'
IS 'being delivered from the power of sin'? Are you not misquoting her? That both happen is obvious in Scripture. That being born again is the result of faith is not.
This I see you doing with Scripture, all day long —take a passage out of context as proof-text, not to mention interpreting it according to your thinking, to mean only what YOU take it to mean, in an attempt to prove your thesis by logical use of your mis-use of the passage.
How can you glaze over these things as if they are nothing?
Dave
But
@Arial didn't just gloss over those things. Your logical progression depends on so many presumptions that the situation is like a mosquito in a nudists' colony. Why should she consider "these things" you present as though they were solid reality, when there are better things to deal with than the imaginings of your mind? None of us have all day to bite all that flesh. It doesn't take much to satisfy a mosquito on such easily accessible flesh.